Instructions: Select the single best answer for each question. Review your answers at the end of the block before proceeding.
Question 1 of 5 — LO 1 · SRY and Testis Determination
A 19-year-old phenotypic male presents for infertility evaluation. Exam shows normal male external genitalia, Tanner V pubic hair, bilateral testes ~15 mL, no gynecomastia. Karyotype comes back 46,XX. FISH analysis identifies SRY translocated onto one of the X chromosomes. Which of the following best explains his phenotype?
AMosaic 46,XX/46,XY with XY-line dominance
BSRY on the short arm of Y normally crosses over to X during paternal meiosis; its product (TDF) drove the bipotential gonad toward testis
CExogenous androgen exposure in utero virilized a 46,XX female
DAn AR gain-of-function mutation produced constitutive virilization
EAbsence of X-inactivation allowed a duplicate autosome to carry AMH
B — Correct. This is the classic 46,XX sex-reversed male (de la Chapelle syndrome). SRY normally lies on the short arm of Y (Yp11.3), very near the pseudo-autosomal region that pairs with X during paternal meiosis. Aberrant recombination occasionally translocates SRY onto the X chromosome. The resulting 46,XX zygote with a paternal X carrying SRY expresses TDF → bipotential gonad → testis → normal fetal T + AMH → male phenotype. Because they lack other Y genes (AZF), most of these men are infertile (azoospermia).
Question 2 of 5 — LO 2 · Testosterone vs DHT vs Estrogen
A 16-year-old 46,XY child is brought to clinic because of concerns about external genital appearance since birth. He was raised female until age 11 when gradual virilization began. Testosterone is elevated; DHT is low; AMH is normal. He has a vagina that ends blindly, no uterus, bilateral testes in the inguinal canals, and normal epididymides, vas deferentia, and seminal vesicles. Which finding in this patient is MOST directly attributable to dihydrotestosterone deficiency?
AAbsence of uterus and fallopian tubes
BRetention of normal epididymis and vas deferens
CAmbiguous / female-appearing external genitalia at birth
DTestes located in the inguinal canals
ELow LH despite low DHT
C — Correct. This is 5α-reductase deficiency. The enzyme converts T → DHT. DHT drives virilization of external genitalia (penis, scrotum, prostate) in utero. Testosterone alone is sufficient for the internal male duct system (Wolffian → epididymis, vas, seminal vesicles) — that's why internal anatomy is normal. AMH from Sertoli cells regresses the Müllerian ducts (→ no uterus). Puberty brings a surge in T that partially overcomes the DHT deficit → virilization ("guevedoces / penis at 12" is the classic description).
Question 3 of 5 — LO 1/2 · AMH and Müllerian Ducts
A 46,XY infant is born with bilateral undescended testes and, during inguinal hernia repair, is discovered to have a rudimentary uterus, fallopian tubes, and upper vagina alongside normal male internal ducts ("hernia uteri inguinalis"). External genitalia are male. Which of the following mutations most likely explains this picture?
AAndrogen receptor loss-of-function
BSRY deletion
CAMH (or AMH-receptor) loss-of-function
D5α-reductase loss-of-function
E21-hydroxylase deficiency
C — Correct.Persistent Müllerian duct syndrome (PMDS) results from loss-of-function in AMH or its type-II receptor (AMHR2). Sertoli cells either fail to produce AMH or target tissue cannot respond → Müllerian ducts persist → uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina. Testosterone and DHT remain normal → normal Wolffian duct retention and normal external male genitalia. Cryptorchidism is common because AMH also aids testicular descent. AR LOF would be CAIS (female external phenotype). 5α-RD would have female-looking external genitalia.
Question 4 of 5 — LO 1 · Default Pathway
In a mouse model, investigators create a fetal 46,XY animal in which the fetal testis is surgically ablated at the bipotential gonad stage, BEFORE any androgen or AMH production. Which of the following would be observed at birth?
AMale external genitalia with absent internal ducts
BBilateral streak gonads with male internal ducts
CFemale external genitalia, uterus, fallopian tubes, upper vagina; no internal male ducts
DAmbiguous external genitalia with bilateral intact testes
EMale external genitalia with retained Müllerian structures
C — Correct. This is the classic Jost experiment that established the female default pathway. Without gonadal secretions: no AMH → Müllerian ducts persist (→ uterus, tubes, upper vagina); no testosterone → Wolffian ducts regress (no male internal ducts); no DHT → external genitalia default to female. Neither estrogen nor an "ovary signal" is required. Ovaries are not needed for in utero female development.
Question 5 of 5 — LO 1/6 · CAH with Ambiguous Genitalia
A 46,XX newborn has ambiguous external genitalia (clitoromegaly with partial labioscrotal fusion). The infant is lethargic with poor feeding; labs show Na 128, K 6.3, glucose 48. 17-OH-progesterone is markedly elevated. Pelvic ultrasound shows a uterus and normal bilateral ovaries. Which statement about this patient's reproductive anatomy is correct?
AMüllerian ducts regressed because the adrenal AMH analog was elevated
BMüllerian ducts persisted normally because ovaries do not secrete AMH; external virilization is due to adrenal androgens
CWolffian ducts persisted because adrenal testosterone stimulates mesonephric retention
DSRY must have translocated to the X to produce ovarian dysgenesis
EExternal genitalia are female because DHT is fully blocked by excess cortisol
B — Correct. Classic salt-wasting 21-hydroxylase deficiency CAH in a 46,XX infant. Adrenal cortex cannot make cortisol → ACTH drive → steroid precursors shunted into androgen pathway → excess androstenedione/testosterone → peripheral DHT → virilization of external genitalia. Internal anatomy is normal female because the fetal ovary produces no AMH (so Müllerian ducts persist → uterus, tubes, upper vagina) and no substantial testosterone (so Wolffian ducts regress). Salt-wasting reflects aldosterone deficiency (the same 21-OH block) — hyponatremia + hyperkalemia + shock. Treat with hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone + salt.
Instructions: Single best answer. Each question integrates physiology with a brief clinical scenario.
Question 1 of 5 — LO 3 · GnRH Pulsatility and Leuprolide
A 68-year-old man with metastatic prostate adenocarcinoma is started on leuprolide depot injections every 3 months. Within the first 2 weeks after initiation, his serum testosterone transiently rises before falling to castrate levels by week 4. Which of the following best describes the mechanism of the chronic effect?
ACompetitive antagonism at the androgen receptor
BInhibition of 5α-reductase in the prostate
CDesensitization of pituitary gonadotropes by continuous GnRH-receptor occupancy → ↓LH/FSH → ↓testicular testosterone
DBlockade of testicular cholesterol desmolase
EStimulation of hepatic SHBG synthesis to sequester free testosterone
C — Correct. Physiologic GnRH is pulsatile (every 60–90 min), which is required to keep gonadotropes responsive. Continuous leuprolide (GnRH agonist) produces sustained receptor occupancy → receptor internalization + downstream signaling desensitization → ↓LH/FSH → ↓testicular testosterone → "chemical castration." The initial T flare (weeks 1–2) reflects early receptor activation before desensitization takes hold. To blunt the flare, antiandrogens (e.g., flutamide, bicalutamide) are co-administered. GnRH antagonists (degarelix, cetrorelix) suppress LH/FSH immediately without any flare.
Question 2 of 5 — LO 3 · Two-Cell Model and Aromatase Inhibitors
A 58-year-old postmenopausal woman with ER-positive invasive ductal breast cancer is prescribed anastrozole for 5 years after lumpectomy. She develops joint pains and reduced bone density. The drug's mechanism is relevant to both its therapeutic effect and its side-effect profile. What best describes its mechanism?
ACompetitive antagonism at estrogen receptor α
BIrreversible inhibition of 17α-hydroxylase in theca cells
CInhibition of CYP19 (aromatase) → blocks conversion of androgens to estrogens in peripheral tissues
DSelective estrogen-receptor modulation — agonist in bone, antagonist in breast
EInhibition of cholesterol desmolase in the ovarian theca cell
C — Correct.Aromatase (CYP19) converts androgens (androstenedione, testosterone) → estrogens (estrone, estradiol). In premenopausal women, granulosa cells aromatize thecal androgens. In postmenopausal women, ovarian aromatase is gone and adipose tissue becomes the dominant site. Anastrozole/letrozole/exemestane block aromatase → very low peripheral estrogen → benefits ER+ breast cancer but worsens bone density and joint symptoms. Compare: tamoxifen is a SERM (ER antagonist in breast, agonist in bone and endometrium → but ↑ endometrial cancer risk).
Question 3 of 5 — LO 3/5 · Positive Feedback and the LH Surge
A 23-year-old woman undergoing oocyte retrieval for IVF is given daily recombinant FSH injections for controlled ovarian stimulation, followed by a single hCG injection 36 hours prior to retrieval to "trigger" final oocyte maturation. What physiologic step does the hCG injection most directly replace in the normal menstrual cycle?
AEarly follicular FSH rise that recruits antral follicles
BMid-cycle LH surge that induces resumption of meiosis I and ovulation
CEarly luteal progesterone peak
DLate luteal CL rescue by trophoblast hCG
EFeedback inhibition of gonadotropes by progesterone
B — Correct. hCG and LH share an α-subunit and have nearly identical β-subunits; both bind the same LH receptor. A single hCG bolus mimics the endogenous LH surge → resumes oocyte meiosis I (extrusion of first polar body → secondary oocyte arrested at metaphase II), triggers follicular rupture ~36 hours later, and begins luteinization of granulosa. Timing is critical: retrieve before natural ovulation spills the oocyte. Patients have been downregulated with GnRH agonists/antagonists to suppress their own LH surge so the hCG "trigger" is controlled.
Question 4 of 5 — LO 4 · Corpus Luteum Rescue
A 31-year-old woman with recurrent first-trimester miscarriages has a 6-week pregnancy confirmed by β-hCG. During a routine exam at 8 weeks, she undergoes emergent laparoscopic removal of a twisted, ischemic right ovary containing a large corpus luteum cyst. Without intervention, what is the most likely outcome in the first few days after surgery?
APreterm labor at 28 weeks due to early progesterone withdrawal
BEarly pregnancy loss due to progesterone deficiency before the luteal–placental shift
CRapid fetal masculinization from loss of estrogen
DHyperemesis gravidarum secondary to rising hCG without CL feedback
EMaternal thyrotoxicosis from unopposed hCG
B — Correct. During weeks 0–10 of gestation, progesterone (required to maintain the pregnant endometrium) comes from the corpus luteum, which is maintained by trophoblast-derived hCG. The luteal–placental shift occurs at ~8–10 weeks, when the placenta becomes the dominant progesterone source. Losing the CL before this handoff → abrupt progesterone drop → miscarriage. Clinical lesson: supplement with exogenous progesterone if CL is lost before week 10. Natural progesterone transitions smoothly once placenta takes over.
Question 5 of 5 — LO 5 · Cycle Phase Dating by Endometrial Biopsy
A 34-year-old woman undergoing infertility workup has an endometrial biopsy on cycle day 24 (assuming LH surge on day 14). Histology shows coiled endometrial glands with sub-nuclear glycogen vacuoles, abundant stromal edema, and prominent spiral arterioles. Which hormone most directly produced this pattern, and on which day of the cycle does it peak?
AEstradiol; day 13
BProgesterone; day 21
CLH; day 14
DInhibin B; day 7
EProlactin; day 26
B — Correct. The histology describes the secretory (luteal) phase endometrium — driven by progesterone from the corpus luteum. Key features: tortuous glands with sub-nuclear then supra-nuclear glycogen vacuoles, stromal edema progressing to pre-decidualization, and prominent spiral arterioles. Progesterone peaks on day 21 of a 28-day cycle (mid-luteal). Timing biopsies for "day 21 progesterone" in infertility evaluation assesses CL function. Without adequate progesterone, implantation fails.
Instructions: Single best answer. Integrate history, exam, and labs to reach the diagnosis.
Question 1 of 5 — LO 6 · Turner Syndrome Diagnosis
A 15-year-old girl is evaluated for primary amenorrhea. She is at the 3rd percentile for height, has a short webbed neck, wide-spaced nipples on a shield chest, no breast development, and blood pressure of 145/88 in the right arm and 105/70 in the left leg. Cardiac exam reveals an early-peaking systolic murmur. Labs: FSH 92 mIU/mL, LH 38 mIU/mL, estradiol <10 pg/mL. Which of the following is most likely on pelvic ultrasound, and what cardiovascular study is most urgent?
ANormal ovaries; echocardiogram for patent ductus arteriosus
BStreak gonads; echocardiogram/MRI for bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation of the aorta
CPolycystic ovaries; Holter monitor for arrhythmia
DOvarian tumor; carotid Doppler for stenosis
EMüllerian agenesis; renal ultrasound only
B — Correct. Primary amenorrhea + short stature + webbed neck + shield chest + arm-leg BP gradient = Turner syndrome (45,XO) with coarctation of the aorta. ↑↑FSH/LH with ↓E2 is hypergonadotropic hypogonadism from streak gonads — ovarian follicles undergo accelerated atresia before birth. Cardiovascular complications drive mortality: bicuspid aortic valve (most common defect), coarctation of aorta (differential arm/leg pressures), aortic root dilatation/dissection. Also screen: thyroid (Hashimoto), renal (horseshoe kidney), skeletal (scoliosis). Treatment: GH in childhood + cyclic E2/P at puberty; fertility via donor oocyte.
Question 2 of 5 — LO 6 · Kallmann Syndrome
A 17-year-old boy is evaluated for delayed puberty. Height and arm span are appropriate for age. He has a cleft palate, sparse facial/axillary hair, and micropenis with bilateral cryptorchidism. On questioning, he has never been able to smell. Testosterone 35 ng/dL, LH 0.4 mIU/mL, FSH 0.6 mIU/mL. Pulsatile GnRH administration elicits a brisk LH/FSH response. What gene is most likely mutated, and what embryologic process is disrupted?
ASRY; bipotential gonad differentiation
BAR; androgen receptor function
CKAL1/ANOS1 (or FGFR1); migration of GnRH neurons and olfactory neurons from the olfactory placode to the hypothalamus
DDAX1; X-linked adrenal hypoplasia
EFMR1; silencing of FMR1 expression
C — Correct.Kallmann syndrome = delayed puberty + anosmia = failed migration of GnRH-releasing neurons (and olfactory neurons) from their shared origin in the olfactory placode to the medial basal hypothalamus. KAL1/ANOS1 is X-linked recessive; autosomal forms include FGFR1. Labs confirm hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. The preserved response to exogenous pulsatile GnRH localizes the defect upstream of the pituitary (pituitary is intact). Treatment: exogenous T/E2 for secondary sexual development; pulsatile GnRH or gonadotropin (hCG + FSH) for fertility.
Question 3 of 5 — LO 6 · Complete Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome
A 16-year-old phenotypic girl presents for primary amenorrhea. She has Tanner V breast development, absent pubic and axillary hair, and a blind-ending vagina with no palpable cervix. Bilateral masses are palpable in the inguinal canals. Labs: T 620 ng/dL (elevated), LH 28 mIU/mL, FSH 5 mIU/mL, E2 68 pg/mL. Karyotype 46,XY. Which of the following best explains normal breast development in this patient?
AExogenous estrogen exposure from in utero maternal supplementation
BPeripheral aromatization of elevated testosterone to estradiol; ER signaling is intact (only the androgen receptor is defective)
CCompensatory estrogen production by the streak gonads
DElevated prolactin directly stimulates breast tissue
EProgesterone elevation from ovarian remnants
B — Correct.Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome (CAIS) — X-linked loss-of-function in the AR. Testes produce T and AMH. AMH regresses Müllerian ducts (no uterus, blind vagina). T cannot signal through AR → Wolffian ducts regress, external genitalia default to female, pubic/axillary hair absent. Peripheral aromatization (in adipose/skin) converts the elevated T to E2 → ER signaling is intact → normal breast development at puberty. T negative feedback on the HPG axis is also impaired → ↑ LH (but FSH stays near-normal because inhibin B is intact from Sertoli cells). Management: gonadectomy after puberty (~2–5% lifetime gonadal malignancy risk) + estrogen replacement.
Question 4 of 5 — LO 6 · PCOS Diagnosis and Endometrial Risk
A 26-year-old woman with a BMI of 33 presents with 6-month history of amenorrhea and new facial hirsutism. Transvaginal ultrasound shows 14 follicles per ovary (2–9 mm) and a 15-mm endometrial stripe. Labs: T 85 ng/dL (upper limit), LH/FSH ratio 3:1, fasting glucose 108, TSH 1.8, prolactin 12. Her biggest long-term cancer risk, and a reasonable first-line pharmacologic step for that risk while she works on weight loss, are:
B — Correct. PCOS (Rotterdam: anovulation + hyperandrogenism + polycystic morphology) → chronic unopposed estrogen (adipose aromatization of androgens → E1) because anovulation means no corpus luteum and therefore no progesterone. Unopposed estrogen on the endometrium → simple → complex → atypical hyperplasia → Type I endometrial adenocarcinoma. Cyclic progestin (e.g., medroxyprogesterone 10 mg × 10–12 days/month) or OCPs are protective by inducing regular shedding of the endometrium. Metformin addresses insulin resistance; letrozole for ovulation induction when fertility is desired; spironolactone for hirsutism.
Question 5 of 5 — LO 6 · Premature Ovarian Insufficiency
A 34-year-old woman presents with 8 months of amenorrhea, hot flashes, poor sleep, and new-onset vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. β-hCG is negative. TSH and prolactin are normal. FSH is 62 mIU/mL on two measurements one month apart; estradiol is 12 pg/mL. Her mother entered menopause at age 41; her maternal uncle has intellectual disability. Which diagnostic test is most likely to identify the underlying cause, and what is the recommended long-term management?
AKaryotype for 45,XO; clomiphene for ovulation induction
BFMR1 triplet-repeat analysis (Fragile X pre-mutation); systemic hormone replacement (estrogen + cyclic progestin) until average menopause age to protect bone and cardiovascular health
B — Correct.Premature ovarian insufficiency (POI) = menopause before age 40 (FSH >40 on two occasions ≥ 1 month apart + ↓E2 + amenorrhea). The family history (maternal uncle with intellectual disability, mother with early menopause) points toward Fragile X pre-mutation (FMR1) — the most common identifiable genetic cause of POI. Pre-mutation carriers (55–200 CGG repeats) have 20× risk of POI and male descendants are at risk for full Fragile X (>200 repeats) with intellectual disability. Management: systemic hormone replacement (estrogen + cyclic progestin if uterus intact) until the average age of natural menopause (~51) to protect bone density, cardiovascular health, and genitourinary tissue. Fertility via donor oocyte.
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