Lecture 23 — GI Pharmacology

HoyaDocs — GI Block | USMLE Step 1 Preparation

Lecture 23 — Overview

GI Pharmacology: PUD, GERD, Nausea, Diarrhea, IBD · HoyaDocs GI Block

Page Summaries

💊 LO 1 — Acid Control Targets
Antacids · H₂ blockers · PPIs · P-CABs · Anticholinergics
Practice Qs: Q1–Q3
🦠 LO 2 — H. pylori Therapy
Triple vs quadruple therapy · Drug names
Practice Qs: Q4–Q5
🔥 LO 3 — GERD & Antacids
LES physiology · Antacid pharmacology · Stepwise treatment
Practice Qs: Q6–Q7
🛡️ LO 4 — Cytoprotection
Sucralfate · Misoprostol (PGE1 analog)
Practice Qs: Q8
🧠 LO 5 — Vomiting Reflex
CTZ · NTS · Vestibular input · Motion sickness distinction
Practice Qs: Q9
💉 LO 6 — Antiemetics
Ondansetron · Metoclopramide · Scopolamine · Dramamine
Practice Qs: Q10–Q11
💧 LO 7 — Diarrhea Treatment
ORS rationale · Diphenoxylate · Loperamide
Practice Qs: Q12
🌿 LO 8 — Laxatives
Bulk · Irritants · Salines · Stool softeners by onset
Practice Qs: Q13
🔬 LO 9 — IBD Biologics
Crohn's vs UC · 5-ASA · Steroids · Anti-TNF-α vs anti-IL-23 · Infliximab vs Adalimumab · Risankizumab
Practice Qs: Q14–Q15

Official Learning Objectives Map

1 State the possible targets for control of gastric acid and the classes of drugs (and their mechanism of action) that are used at those sites. Pharmacology ▼
2 Explain the use of triple or quadruple therapy in the treatment of H. pylori infections. Name the drugs used. Pharmacology ▼
Practice Questions
3 Discuss the physiological basis for GERD. Explain the rationale and pharmacology of antacids in the treatment of PUD and GERD. Physiology + Pharm ▼
4 Discuss the role of cytoprotection in the control of peptic ulcers and explain the pharmacology of cytoprotective drugs. Pharmacology ▼
→ Go to LO 4 | Practice: Q8
5 List the CNS areas associated with the vomiting reflex. Explain why motion sickness is treated differently than nausea from blood-borne emetics. Neuropharm ▼
→ Go to LO 5 | Practice: Q9
6 Discuss the pharmacology of ondansetron and metoclopramide and compare with those for treatment of motion sickness. Pharmacology ▼
→ Go to LO 6 | Practice: Q10, Q11
7 Explain the rationale for treating diarrhea with oral rehydration solutions, and narcotics such as diphenoxylate and loperamide. Pharmacology ▼
→ Go to LO 7 | Practice: Q12
8 Discuss the pharmacology of drugs used as laxatives. Pharmacology ▼
→ Go to LO 8 | Practice: Q13
9 Discuss the differences in biologic agents used to treat inflammatory bowel diseases (IBD). Pharmacology ▼
→ Go to LO 9 | Practice: Q14, Q15

LO 1 — Gastric Acid Control: Targets & Drug Classes

Pharmacology · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 1: State the possible targets for control of gastric acid and the classes of drugs (and their mechanism of action) that are used at those sites.

LO 2 — H. pylori Combination Therapy

Pharmacology · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 2: Explain the use of triple or quadruple therapy in the treatment of H. pylori infections. Name the drugs used.

LO 3 — GERD Physiology & Antacid Pharmacology

Physiology + Pharmacology · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 3: Discuss the physiological basis for the development of GERD. Explain the rationale and pharmacology for the use of antacids in the treatment of PUD and GERD.

LO 4 — Cytoprotection in Peptic Ulcer Disease

Pharmacology · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 4: Discuss the role of cytoprotection in the control of peptic ulcers and explain the pharmacology of cytoprotective drugs.

LO 5 — Vomiting Reflex & CNS Emetic Centers

Nausea Pathways · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 5: Describe the mechanism and pathways involved in the vomiting reflex, including the role of the CTZ, NTS, and vestibular system, and identify the neurotransmitter receptors involved.

LO 6 — Antiemetics

Drugs for Nausea & Vomiting · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 6: Describe the mechanism of action, indications, and side effects of antiemetic drugs, including 5-HT3 antagonists, dopamine antagonists, and drugs used for motion sickness.

LO 7 — Diarrhea Treatment

Antidiarrheals & ORS · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 7: Describe the pharmacological management of diarrhea, including the rationale for oral rehydration therapy and the mechanisms of antidiarrheal agents.

LO 8 — Laxatives

Constipation Pharmacotherapy · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 8: Classify laxatives by mechanism and describe the indications, onset of action, and side effects of bulk-forming agents, osmotic laxatives, stimulant laxatives, and stool softeners.

LO 9 — IBD Pharmacotherapy & Biologics

Crohn's, UC, and Gut Microbiome · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 9: Outline the pharmacological treatment of inflammatory bowel disease, including 5-ASA agents, corticosteroids, immunosuppressants, and biologic therapies (anti-TNF-α, anti-IL-23), and describe the role of fecal microbiota transplantation.

Practice Questions

GI23 Self-Assessment · HoyaDocs GI Block

Coverage
  • 15 questions spanning LOs 1–9 — antacids, H2 blockers, PPIs, P-CABs, H. pylori, GERD, cytoprotection, emetics, antiemetics, antidiarrheals, laxatives, and IBD biologics.
Q1 (LO 1). A patient taking omeprazole daily for 6 months is found to have a serum Mg²⁺ of 1.1 mEq/L. Which mechanism explains this finding?
Long-term PPI use → elevated gastric pH → impairs acid-dependent activation of TRPM6/7 magnesium transporters in the small bowel → hypomagnesemia. This is a well-described complication of long-term PPI use and requires PPI discontinuation or magnesium supplementation.
Q2 (LO 1). A 45-year-old man with GERD is started on famotidine. Which statement best describes famotidine's advantage over cimetidine?
Cimetidine is notorious for CYP450 inhibition (warfarin, phenytoin, theophylline interactions) and antiandrogenic effects (gynecomastia, impotence). Famotidine and ranitidine lack these properties. All H2 blockers are competitive reversible antagonists.
Q3 (LO 1). A patient starting a PPI is told the drug must be taken 30–60 minutes before a meal. Why?
PPIs are prodrugs activated in the acidic canaliculi of actively secreting proton pumps. The H⁺/K⁺-ATPase must be in its active (secreting) state for the PPI to enter the canaliculus, become protonated, and covalently bind the pump. Meal-stimulated acid secretion maximizes active pumps available — so PPIs are most effective taken 30–60 min before the first meal of the day.
Q4 (LO 2). A 52-year-old man tests positive for H. pylori via urea breath test. He is started on bismuth quadruple therapy. Which four-drug combination is this?
Bismuth quadruple therapy = Bismuth subsalicylate + Metronidazole + Tetracycline + PPI. This regimen is used when clarithromycin resistance is suspected or as a salvage regimen. Triple therapy = PPI + clarithromycin + amoxicillin (or metronidazole).
Q5 (LO 3). A patient with GERD reports that alcohol, chocolate, and peppermint worsen her symptoms. Which mechanism explains why these substances exacerbate GERD?
Alcohol, chocolate, peppermint, caffeine, fatty foods, and nicotine all reduce LES pressure → allow gastric contents to reflux into the esophagus. GERD is fundamentally a disorder of LES incompetence.
Q6 (LO 4). A 68-year-old woman taking daily ibuprofen for arthritis develops a peptic ulcer. Which agent would be MOST appropriate to both treat the current ulcer and prevent recurrence while she continues NSAID therapy?
Misoprostol (PGE1 analog) directly replaces the prostaglandins that NSAIDs deplete. NSAIDs inhibit COX → ↓prostaglandins → ↓mucus, ↓bicarbonate, ↑acid vulnerability. Misoprostol restores these cytoprotective functions. Sucralfate is NOT effective for NSAID-induced ulcers for poorly understood reasons. Note: if patient were pregnant, use PPI instead (misoprostol is contraindicated).
Q7 (LO 5). A patient undergoing cisplatin chemotherapy develops severe nausea. The oncologist explains that the drug triggers nausea by causing enterochromaffin cells in the GI mucosa to release serotonin. Which pathway does this activate?
Chemotherapy → enterochromaffin cells release 5-HT → activates 5-HT3 receptors on vagal afferents → NTS → emetic center. This is the peripheral pathway. The CTZ (D2, NK1) is also activated by blood-borne cisplatin metabolites. Ondansetron works by blocking 5-HT3 at both sites.
Q8 (LO 6). A 24-year-old medical student gets nauseated on a ferry. His colleague gives him ondansetron. Despite taking it, he continues to vomit. Why is ondansetron ineffective here?
Motion sickness signals travel from the inner ear vestibular system → cerebellum → emetic center, mediated by H1 and M1 receptors. Ondansetron is a 5-HT3 antagonist — it has no activity at H1 or M1 receptors. The correct drugs for motion sickness are diphenhydramine (H1 blocker) or scopolamine (M1 blocker).
Q9 (LO 6). A 55-year-old man with Parkinson's disease develops gastroparesis. His neurologist is asked to recommend an antiemetic/prokinetic. Which drug is CONTRAINDICATED?
Metoclopramide crosses the BBB and blocks D2 receptors centrally → worsens dopamine deficiency in Parkinson's → accelerates parkinsonian symptoms. Domperidone is a D2 antagonist that does NOT cross the BBB (stays peripheral) and is safer in Parkinson's, though not available in the US. Ondansetron is safe.
Q10 (LO 7). During a cholera outbreak in a refugee camp, oral rehydration solution (ORS) is distributed. A medic asks why plain water is insufficient. Which is the best explanation?
SGLT1 cotransports Na⁺ and glucose together into enterocytes — water follows osmotically. Cholera toxin disables Na-Cl co-transport but SPARES SGLT1. Plain water lacks glucose, so SGLT1 cannot be activated and Na (and thus water) cannot be absorbed efficiently. The glucose in ORS is the critical driver of Na — and thus water — absorption even in active cholera.
Q11 (LO 7). A parent brings her 5-year-old child to the ED after he ingested a large quantity of Pepto-Bismol during a stomach flu. The parent notes his tongue and stool are black. What is the most important concern regarding this child?
Bismuth subsalicylate contains a salicylate component. Salicylates given to children with viral illness can cause Reye syndrome (acute hepatic failure + encephalopathy). The black stool/tongue is from bismuth sulfide — it is BENIGN and not GI bleeding. The key danger here is the salicylate in a child with viral gastroenteritis.
Q12 (LO 8). A patient with hepatic encephalopathy is started on lactulose. His family is confused — "how does a laxative help his brain?" Which mechanism explains lactulose's benefit?
Colonic bacteria metabolize lactulose → lactic acid + acetic acid → lowers luminal pH. This acidification converts NH3 (membrane-permeable, absorbed → reaches brain) into NH4⁺ (ionized, membrane-impermeable, trapped in colon lumen) → excreted in stool → lower serum and CNS ammonia → improved hepatic encephalopathy.
Q13 (LO 8). A patient is started on opioid pain management after hip surgery. The surgical team also starts docusate sodium (Colace). Which statement BEST describes the rationale?
Docusate is a stool softener (anionic surfactant) that lowers stool surface tension, allowing water and fat to penetrate and soften the stool mass. It does NOT stimulate peristalsis. After hip surgery, straining (Valsalva) is dangerous — docusate prevents painful hard stools. For opioid-induced constipation, a stimulant laxative (senna) is actually more appropriate, which is why "senna + docusate" is a common combo order for opioid patients.
Q14 (LO 9). A 29-year-old man with Crohn's disease is started on infliximab. Before initiating therapy, which screening step is MOST critical?
Anti-TNF-α agents (infliximab, adalimumab) cause significant immunosuppression. TNF-α is critical for granuloma maintenance — blocking it can reactivate latent TB (granulomas dissolve → bacilli released → active TB). ALL patients must be screened with PPD or IGRA (QuantiFERON) + CXR before starting anti-TNF therapy. TPMT genotyping is required before azathioprine/6-MP, not infliximab.
Q15 (LO 9). Which of the following BEST distinguishes adalimumab from infliximab?
Both target TNF-α, but: Infliximab = CHIMERIC (mouse + human Fc region) → given by IV infusion → more immunogenic (anti-drug antibodies, infusion reactions). Adalimumab = FULLY HUMAN → given by SQ self-injection → less immunogenic → preferred for outpatient maintenance. Both are approved for Crohn's and UC. Neither requires TPMT testing (that's for thiopurines).