Lecture 21: Poisoning Conference & Cases
HoyaDocs — GI Block | USMLE Step 1 Preparation
Lecture 21 — Overview
Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block
Page Summaries
NPDS data · fatal substances · history-taking · alert presentations · lab workup
Practice Qs: 1–6
Decontamination methods · enhanced elimination · activated charcoal
Practice Qs: 7–9
Symptoms by agent · time course · antidotes · supportive care
Practice Qs: 10–15
Anticholinergic · cholinergic · sympathomimetic · narcotic
Practice Qs: 16–18
Official Learning Objectives Map
LO 1 — NPDS & Epidemiology
National Poison Data System · Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 1: Identify the National Poison Data System (NPDS) as the primary source of epidemiologic data on poisoning in the US
▼ What Is the NPDS?
The National Poison Data System (NPDS) is maintained by the American Association of Poison Control Centers (AAPCC). It is the primary source of epidemiologic data on poisoning in the United States, compiling real-time reports from all 55 US poison control centers.
- Data are reported when people call poison control (1-800-222-1222)
- Published annually in the journal Clinical Toxicology
- Tracks exposures, outcomes, demographics, and substances involved
- Underestimates true incidence — not all poisonings trigger a call
- NPDS = national surveillance database for US poisoning statistics
- Data source = poison control center calls → underrepresents fatal/severe cases (those go directly to ER)
- Poison Control hotline: 1-800-222-1222 (24/7)
▼ 2022 NPDS Exposure Data
📊 Key 2022 Numbers
| Metric | 2022 Value |
|---|---|
| Total human exposures | 2,064,875 |
| Exposures in children ≤5 years | ~40% |
| Total fatalities | 1,491 |
| #1 exposure category | Analgesics (11.5%) |
| #2 exposure category | Cleaning substances (7.2%) |
| #3 exposure category | Antidepressants (5.6%) |
Key contrast: most exposures are accidental and occur in young children; most fatalities are in adults and are intentional (self-harm).
▼ Fatality Categories
| Rank | Substance Category | 2022 Deaths |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Sedative/hypnotics (benzodiazepines, barbiturates) | 299 |
| 2 | Acetaminophen alone | 270 |
| 3 | Opioids | 244 |
| 4 | Alcohols (ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, EG) | 231 |
| 5 | Cardiovascular drugs | ~150 |
| 6 | Antidepressants | ~130 |
NPDS captures calls to poison control. The true opioid death toll in the US far exceeds these numbers (>80,000/year from CDC data) because most opioid overdose deaths do not trigger a poison control call first. NPDS rankings ≠ total national drug death rankings.
▼ Exposure Patterns
- ~40% of all exposures
- Usually unintentional/exploratory
- Low fatality rate (child-resistant packaging)
- Common: medications left out, cleaning products
- Minority of exposures but majority of fatalities
- Intentional (self-harm) → highest case fatality rate
- Most common: medications (prescription + OTC)
- NPDS = primary US poisoning epidemiology source (AAPCC, poison control call data)
- Over 2 million exposures/year; ~40% in children ≤5; most fatal cases in adults
- Top fatality categories: sedative/hypnotics → APAP → opioids → alcohols
- Top exposure categories: analgesics → cleaning substances → antidepressants
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 1, Question 1
A toxicology researcher wants to determine which pharmaceutical agents are most commonly involved in poisoning exposures in US children under 5 years old. What is the most appropriate data source, and what is a key limitation of that source?
Consider: What national database tracks poisoning exposure data? How are cases captured in this system?
The NPDS, maintained by the AAPCC, aggregates real-time data from all 55 US poison control centers (1-800-222-1222). A critical limitation is that it only captures cases where someone calls poison control — it misses many fatal cases (which go directly to emergency services) and unrecognized exposures. This means NPDS underestimates the true burden of poisoning, especially fatalities.
LO 2 — Fatal Substances
Substances with Greatest Fatalities · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 2: List the substances with the greatest number of fatalities
▼ Fatality Rankings (NPDS 2022)
The following substances are associated with the most deaths reported to NPDS. Understanding why each is fatal is more important than memorizing exact numbers.
| Substance | Deaths (2022) | Mechanism of Death | Key Feature |
|---|---|---|---|
| Sedative/hypnotics (benzos, barbiturates) | 299 | CNS + respiratory depression | Often combined with other CNS depressants |
| APAP alone | 270 | Hepatic necrosis → liver failure | Delayed — silent for 24h then fulminant |
| Opioids | 244 | Respiratory depression | Triad: AMS + miosis + ↓ respirations |
| Alcohols | 231 | CNS depression; metabolic acidosis (methanol, EG) | Ethanol vs. toxic alcohols (methanol/EG) differ significantly |
| Cardiovascular drugs | ~150 | Arrhythmia, cardiac depression | Digoxin, CCBs, beta-blockers |
| Antidepressants | ~130 | TCAs → wide QRS, seizures; SSRIs → serotonin syndrome | TCAs most dangerous |
- Sedatives/hypnotics (#1)
- Opioids (#3)
- Acetaminophen (#2)
- Poisons/alcohols (#4)
▼ Clinical Cases
These 6 cases illustrate key management principles. Know each scenario cold.
▼Case 1 — Acetaminophen Overdose
Young woman presents after intentional APAP ingestion. Initially asymptomatic (N/V may occur early).
- Key tool: Rumack-Matthew nomogram — plots serum APAP level vs. time post-ingestion to predict hepatotoxicity risk
- Treatment: N-acetylcysteine (NAC) — most effective if started within 8–10h; can still help up to 24h+
- Mechanism of toxicity: NAPQI (toxic metabolite) accumulates when glutathione depleted → centrilobular necrosis
- NAC mechanism: replenishes glutathione + directly detoxifies NAPQI
Always treat based on the nomogram, not symptoms. APAP toxicity is silent for 24–72 hours. If you wait for symptoms (jaundice, RUQ pain, elevated LFTs), it may be too late for NAC to prevent liver failure. Always get APAP level in any intentional overdose.
▼Case 2 — Silica Gel
Child ingested silica gel desiccant packets (the "Do Not Eat" packs in shoe boxes, electronics).
- Silica gel is NONTOXIC — despite the alarming label, it is an inert desiccant
- May cause mild GI irritation (nausea, vomiting) — treat symptomatically
- No decontamination needed
- Reassure parents and monitor for GI symptoms only
▼Case 3 — NaOH (Caustic Alkali Ingestion)
Patient ingested sodium hydroxide (lye, drain cleaner). Caustic alkaline ingestion.
- Mechanism: liquefactive necrosis of esophagus and stomach (worse than acid — penetrates deeper)
- DO: Dilute with small amounts of water or milk (immediately)
- DO: Endoscopy at 12–24 hours to assess esophageal/gastric damage
- DO NOT: Induce emesis — re-exposure of mucosa causes more damage
- DO NOT: Pass NG tube blindly — risk of perforation
- DO NOT: Neutralize (acid + base = exothermic reaction)
Ipecac and induced emesis are absolutely contraindicated in caustic ingestions (acids and alkalis). Re-exposing the damaged esophageal mucosa to the caustic agent causes additional necrosis and risks perforation.
▼Case 4 — Polysubstance OD: Opioid + Sulfonylurea
Patient took opioids (heroin or prescription) plus glyburide (sulfonylurea). Classic "double danger" scenario.
- Acute: Naloxone for opioid-induced respiratory depression (may need continuous infusion — opioid half-life > naloxone half-life)
- Delayed danger: Glyburide causes delayed hypoglycemia — onset can be hours later, even after patient appears to improve
- Monitor blood glucose serially for 12–24h
- Treat hypoglycemia: IV dextrose; octreotide (suppresses insulin release) for refractory cases
▼Case 5 — Hydrocarbon Ingestion
Child ingested petroleum distillate (gasoline, mineral spirits, lighter fluid).
- Primary risk: aspiration pneumonitis — hydrocarbons are aspirated easily due to low viscosity and surface tension
- DO NOT: Induce emesis — dramatically increases aspiration risk
- DO NOT: Gastric lavage — same aspiration risk
- DO: Supportive care; respiratory monitoring; chest X-ray if symptomatic
- GI absorption of hydrocarbons is actually minimal — aspiration is the real threat
Gastric lavage is contraindicated in hydrocarbon ingestion. The hydrocarbon's high volatility and low viscosity means that any procedure that moves it back through the pharynx risks aspiration into the lungs, causing a severe aspiration pneumonitis.
▼Case 6 — Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
Family found unresponsive in their home in winter. Earlier had "flu-like symptoms" but no fever.
- Classic scenario: Multiple family members (+ pets) ill simultaneously → think CO from furnace/generator
- Mechanism: CO binds hemoglobin with 200–250× greater affinity than O₂ → carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) → ↓ O₂ carrying capacity + leftward shift of O₂–Hb dissociation curve
- Also inhibits cytochrome c oxidase → cellular asphyxiation
- Treatment: Remove from source; 100% O₂ (non-rebreather mask) → reduces COHb half-life from 4–5h → 60–90 min
- Hyperbaric O₂ for: severe toxicity, loss of consciousness, pregnant, neurological symptoms
▼ Special Topic: Carbon Monoxide Poisoning
🔑 CO Sources
Any source of incomplete combustion: car exhaust (garage), gas furnaces/heaters, gas generators, house fires, gas stoves in enclosed spaces.
🔑 Clinical Features by Severity
| Severity | COHb Level | Symptoms |
|---|---|---|
| Mild | 10–20% | Headache, nausea, malaise — "flu without fever" |
| Moderate | 20–40% | Severe headache, dizziness, confusion, chest pain |
| Severe | >40% | Coma, seizures, cardiovascular collapse, death |
Cherry red skin is a late finding seen in <30% of CO poisoning patients (and often only at autopsy). Do NOT rely on it to diagnose or rule out CO poisoning. The classic presentation is flu-like illness without fever in multiple household members. Pulse oximetry is also unreliable — standard pulse ox cannot distinguish COHb from OxyHb; you need co-oximetry (ABG with co-oximeter).
- Pregnant: fetal hemoglobin has higher CO affinity → fetus more susceptible; lower threshold for hyperbaric O₂
- Children: higher metabolic rate → symptoms appear faster
- Cardiac patients: myocardial ischemia can occur at lower COHb levels
▼ Special Topic: Lead Poisoning
🔑 Sources of Lead Exposure
- Lead-based paint in homes built before 1978 (most common pediatric source)
- Occupational: battery manufacturing, smelting, plumbing
- Folk medicines (some Hispanic, Asian, and Middle Eastern remedies)
- Imported toys, pottery with lead-glazed ceramics
- Contaminated water (lead pipes)
🔑 Mechanism of Toxicity
- Inhibits δ-ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase → impaired heme synthesis → microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling
- Deposits in bone (X-ray: lead lines at metaphyses)
- Neurological: inhibits GABA → excitotoxicity; demyelination
- Renal: Fanconi syndrome (proximal tubule damage)
🔑 Clinical Severity Spectrum
| Blood Lead Level | Clinical Findings |
|---|---|
| >70 mcg/dL | Encephalopathy, foot drop/wrist drop (motor neuropathy) |
| 45–70 mcg/dL | Abdominal colic, constipation, anemia |
| 25–44 mcg/dL | Hyperirritability, behavior changes, fatigue |
| <25 mcg/dL | Asymptomatic → subclinical cognitive impairment, ↓ IQ |
Note: no "safe" blood lead level in children — any elevation is associated with neurodevelopmental effects.
🔑 Chelation Therapy
| Agent | Route | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Succimer (DMSA) | Oral | First-line for mild-moderate; outpatient use |
| CaNa₂EDTA | IV or IM | Moderate-severe; can mobilize lead to brain if given alone (give with BAL) |
| BAL (dimercaprol) | IM in peanut oil | Severe cases + encephalopathy; given with EDTA; avoid in peanut allergy |
| Penicillamine | Oral | Less commonly used; adjunct |
- Source: pre-1978 paint chips (children); occupational exposure (adults)
- Inhibits heme synthesis enzymes → microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling
- Lead lines on knee/wrist X-rays; foot drop/wrist drop at high levels
- Diagnosis: blood lead level; CBC with peripheral smear
- Treatment: succimer (mild-mod, oral); BAL + EDTA (severe/encephalopathy)
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 2, Question 1
A 4-year-old is brought in after swallowing hydrocarbon-based furniture polish. His mother wants to make him vomit "to get it out." Why is this the wrong approach, and what should you do instead?
Consider: What is the primary route of injury from hydrocarbon ingestion? What happens if the hydrocarbon contacts the airway?
Hydrocarbons cause minimal GI toxicity. Their main danger is aspiration pneumonitis. These compounds have low viscosity and surface tension, making aspiration into the bronchial tree extremely easy. Inducing emesis forces the hydrocarbon back through the pharynx and dramatically increases aspiration risk. Similarly, gastric lavage is contraindicated. Management is supportive: observe for respiratory symptoms, O₂ if needed, and chest X-ray if coughing or respiratory distress develops.
LO 3 — History-Taking
Focused Poisoning History · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 3: Take a focused history in a poisoning patient
▼ Key History Questions
- What — What agent was involved?
- Amount — How much was taken?
- Route — How was it taken? (ingestion, inhalation, skin, eyes, injection)
- Symptoms — What symptoms are present now? What was done at home?
Plus: When (time since exposure) and Who (patient weight, age for dosing/risk assessment)
| Question | Why It Matters |
|---|---|
| What agent? | Determines specific management, antidote availability |
| How much? | Dose determines toxicity (esp. weight-based for children) |
| When? | Time post-ingestion guides decontamination window and prognosis (e.g., APAP nomogram requires time) |
| What route? | Ingestion vs. inhalation vs. skin affects management approach |
| Current symptoms? | Guides urgency and organ system involvement |
| Prior treatment? | Identifies if patient/family already attempted decontamination (e.g., ipecac at home) |
| Patient age/weight? | Required for dosing activated charcoal, antidotes, and risk assessment |
| Intent? | Intentional overdose → psychiatric evaluation, higher risk of additional ingestions |
▼ Information Sources
- Patient (if conscious and cooperative) — most direct but may downplay intentional overdose
- Family/friends/bystanders — often most reliable for pediatric ingestions
- Medication bottles — note what's prescribed vs. what's present (pill count)
- Scene investigation — EMS description of environment (pill bottles, chemicals, CO detector alarm)
- Medical records — prior prescriptions, previous OD attempts
- Pharmacy — can confirm fill dates and quantities
Patients with intentional overdose frequently minimize or lie about what they took (agent, amount, timing). Always obtain APAP and salicylate levels in all intentional overdoses regardless of stated ingestion — these are silent killers with delayed toxicity where early history is often misleading.
▼ Poison Control Center
- Available 24/7; free service; expert toxicologists available
- Can provide real-time management guidance (decontamination, antidote dosing)
- Should be called early in any poisoning case — even from the ER
- They also advise on nontoxic exposures (like silica gel) — prevents unnecessary ER visits
- Key history: What, How much, When, Route, Symptoms, Prior treatment, Weight/age
- Time of ingestion is critical for APAP nomogram and activated charcoal window
- Always assess intent — intentional OD requires psychiatric evaluation and broader tox screen
- Call Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) early — expert guidance available 24/7
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 3, Question 1
A 22-year-old woman is brought to the ED after her roommate found empty pill bottles. She says she "just took a few Tylenol." She appears well and has no complaints. What are the two most important pieces of information to immediately obtain, and why?
Consider: Which agent has delayed and silent toxicity? What determines severity and guides treatment decisions?
Acetaminophen toxicity is clinically silent for the first 24 hours. The Rumack-Matthew nomogram requires both a serum APAP level and the time post-ingestion to determine if treatment with NAC is indicated. Without knowing when she took the pills, the level cannot be properly interpreted. Additionally, because patients with intentional OD frequently understate what they took, an APAP level should be obtained in all intentional overdoses regardless of stated ingestion.
LO 4 — Alert Presentations
When to Suspect Toxin Exposure · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 4: Recognize clinical presentations that should raise alert for toxin exposure
▼ Red Flag Presentations
The following presentations should always prompt consideration of toxic etiology, even without a known history of exposure:
- Altered mental status (unexplained)
- Seizures (especially in previously healthy adult)
- Coma without head trauma
- Acute psychosis
- Unexplained bradycardia or tachyarrhythmia
- Widened QRS on EKG
- QT prolongation
- Refractory hypotension
- Unexplained anion gap metabolic acidosis
- Severe hypoglycemia
- Methemoglobinemia (cyanosis unresponsive to O₂)
- Any sudden illness in a previously healthy child
- Multi-family-member illness simultaneously
- Seasonal (CO from winter heating)
▼ Classic Alert Scenarios
| Scenario | Think of |
|---|---|
| Flu-like illness in winter without fever, multiple family members sick | Carbon monoxide from heating system |
| Young healthy adult with unexplained wide-complex arrhythmia | TCA overdose (or digoxin toxicity) |
| Child with "AMS" after visiting grandparents | Accidental ingestion of cardiac medications (digoxin, CCBs, beta-blockers) |
| Anion gap metabolic acidosis + visual changes | Methanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze) |
| Patient with profound miosis + respiratory depression + AMS | Opioid overdose |
| New seizures in adult on isoniazid for TB | INH toxicity (pyridoxine depletion) |
| Elevated LFTs, RUQ pain, 48–72h after "minor" overdose | APAP hepatotoxicity |
- Always consider toxin in: unexplained AMS, anion gap acidosis, arrhythmia, seizure, or pediatric sudden illness
- Multiple family members sick simultaneously → CO poisoning until proven otherwise
- Wide QRS + hemodynamic instability → TCA overdose (bicarb therapy)
- Miosis + respiratory depression + AMS = opioid triad
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 4, Question 1
In December, a family of four presents to the ED: two adults with severe headaches and confusion, and two children with nausea. The neighbor found them unresponsive. All improved after leaving the house. Their family dog also seems lethargic. What is the diagnosis, and what single diagnostic test confirms it?
Consider: What toxin affects an entire household including pets? What is the appropriate lab test (and why not standard pulse ox)?
The classic presentation: multiple household members (including pets) with flu-like illness without fever during winter = CO poisoning from defective heating system until proven otherwise. Standard pulse oximetry is unreliable because it cannot distinguish oxyhemoglobin from carboxyhemoglobin — both read as "saturated." Co-oximetry on an arterial blood gas measures COHb directly. Treatment: 100% O₂ via non-rebreather mask; consider hyperbaric O₂ for loss of consciousness or severe toxicity.
LO 5 — Laboratory Studies
Selecting Appropriate Labs in Poisoning · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 5: Select appropriate laboratory studies in a poisoning patient
▼ Universal Labs (Obtain in All Significant Poisonings)
| Test | Why? |
|---|---|
| BMP (Na, K, Cl, HCO₃, BUN, Cr, glucose) | Anion gap calculation; renal function; electrolytes; glucose |
| LFTs + coagulation (PT/INR) | Hepatotoxicity (APAP); warfarin OD; liver failure |
| CBC | Anemia (lead, methemoglobin); leukocytosis (infection vs. toxin) |
| APAP level | Always in intentional OD — delayed hepatotoxicity is silent |
| Salicylate level | Always in intentional OD — can be concurrent ingestion |
| EKG | Wide QRS (TCA), QT prolongation (antipsychotics, antiarrhythmics), bradycardia (beta-blockers, digoxin) |
| ABG with co-oximetry | CO poisoning (COHb); methemoglobinemia; acid-base status |
| Urine drug screen (UDS) | Broad screen for common drugs of abuse; has limitations (see below) |
- UDS uses immunoassay → many false positives (e.g., fluoroquinolones → false positive opiates; ranitidine → meth)
- Misses many synthetic opioids (fentanyl, tramadol) — not detected by standard opiate immunoassay
- Does not detect APAP, salicylates, TCAs, digoxin, alcohol, or many other toxins — order specific levels
- A negative UDS does not rule out poisoning
▼ Targeted / Specific Labs
| Clinical Scenario | Order This |
|---|---|
| Suspected digoxin toxicity | Serum digoxin level (check timing — level unreliable within 6h of dose) |
| Suspected lithium toxicity | Serum lithium level |
| Suspected iron OD | Serum iron + TIBC; check at 4–6h post-ingestion |
| Cyanosis unresponsive to O₂ | Methemoglobin level (co-oximetry) |
| Anion gap + visual changes | Methanol / ethylene glycol levels; osmol gap |
| Pediatric hypoglycemia | Blood glucose; C-peptide/insulin ratio (sulfonylurea OD) |
| Suspected lead poisoning | Blood lead level (BLL) + CBC + free erythrocyte protoporphyrin |
- Calculated osmolality = 2[Na] + [glucose]/18 + [BUN]/2.8
- Osmol gap = measured − calculated osmolality (normal <10)
- Elevated osmol gap + anion gap metabolic acidosis → methanol or ethylene glycol until proven otherwise
▼ EKG in Poisoning
| EKG Finding | Think of | Treatment |
|---|---|---|
| Wide QRS (>120 ms) | TCA overdose; sodium channel blockers (flecainide, quinidine) | Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinizes, narrows QRS) |
| QT prolongation | Antipsychotics, methadone, cisapride, Class IA/III antiarrhythmics | Correct electrolytes; avoid further QT-prolonging agents; Mg²⁺ for torsades |
| Bradycardia + AV block | Digoxin, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers | Specific antidotes (Dig-Fab, glucagon, calcium) |
| Bidirectional VT | Digoxin toxicity (classic), also aconitine | Digoxin-specific Fab antibodies |
- APAP + salicylate levels in ALL intentional overdoses (silent killers)
- EKG is essential — wide QRS → TCA; QT prolongation → antipsychotics/antiarrhythmics; bradycardia → dig/CCB/beta-blocker
- Standard pulse ox is unreliable in CO poisoning — need co-oximetry ABG
- Urine drug screen misses many toxins; a negative result does NOT rule out poisoning
- Osmol gap + anion gap = toxic alcohol (methanol, ethylene glycol) until proven otherwise
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 5, Question 1
A 35-year-old man is brought in obtunded after a party. His vitals show HR 42, BP 80/50. His EKG shows sinus bradycardia with a PR interval of 0.32 s and wide QRS of 160 ms. Urine drug screen is negative. What two drug classes should be highest on your differential, and what is the critical lab/test that will guide management of the wide QRS?
Consider: What causes bradycardia with wide QRS? How does a negative UDS affect your thinking?
A negative UDS does NOT rule out TCA or other sodium channel blocker toxicity — these are not detected on standard immunoassay urine screens. Bradycardia with wide QRS suggests sodium channel blockade (TCA, quinidine, flecainide). Digoxin can cause bradycardia but produces narrow QRS. Management of TCA-associated wide QRS: sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV bolus) — alkalinization and sodium loading both help reverse the sodium channel blockade, narrowing the QRS. Monitor serial EKGs and serum pH.
LO 6 — Decontamination
Methods of Decontamination · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 6: Describe the different methods of decontamination
▼ External Decontamination
👁️ Ocular Exposure
- Immediate copious irrigation with water or saline
- Duration: ≥15 minutes (acid) — for alkali exposures, irrigate until pH normalizes (may need 30–60 min)
- Remove contact lenses before irrigating
- Ophthalmology consult if significant chemical injury
🫁 Inhalation Exposure
- Remove from source immediately (rescuer must ensure personal protection first)
- Fresh air / supplemental O₂
- Support airway and respiration as needed
🖐️ Skin/Dermal Exposure
- Remove all contaminated clothing and jewelry immediately
- Copious water irrigation for ≥15 minutes
- Do not scrub — gentle lavage
- Healthcare workers must use appropriate PPE
▼ GI Decontamination Overview
| Method | Indication | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Activated charcoal | Most oral ingestions within 1–2h | First-line; see detailed section below |
| Whole bowel irrigation (WBI) | Iron, lead, lithium, SR/ER drugs, drug packets (body packers) | PEG-ELS solution (GoLytely) via NGT until clear rectal effluent |
| Gastric lavage | Rarely used; massive ingestion within 1h, intubated patient | High risk: aspiration, esophageal injury; benefits rarely outweigh risks |
| Dilution (water/milk) | Caustic ingestions (acids/alkalis) | Small volume (120–240 mL); do NOT neutralize |
| OBSOLETE | No longer recommended; removed from guidelines; delays charcoal administration |
▼ Activated Charcoal — Key Details
Activated charcoal (AC) is the primary method of GI decontamination for most oral ingestions. It works by adsorbing (binding) the toxin in the GI tract, preventing absorption.
- Dose: 1 g/kg (adults: typically 50–100g)
- Window: Most effective within 1 hour of ingestion; benefit declines significantly after 2h
- Administration: Oral or via NGT (if patient cannot swallow)
🔑 Charcoal Does NOT Work For:
- Metals: iron, lead, lithium (not adsorbed by charcoal)
- Alcohols: ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol
- Caustics: acids, alkalis (charcoal unhelpful; may obscure endoscopy)
- Hydrocarbons: contraindicated (emesis risk during administration)
- Cyanide (poorly adsorbed; also moves too fast)
🔑 Contraindications to Activated Charcoal:
- Unprotected airway (AMS without intubation → aspiration risk)
- Caustic ingestion (interferes with endoscopy, no benefit)
- Hydrocarbon ingestion
- Bowel obstruction or perforation
- Lithium
- Alcohols (ethanol, methanol, EG)
- Metals (iron, lead)
- Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg)
- Caustics
▼ When NOT to Induce Vomiting / No Emesis Rule
This is one of the most common test traps in toxicology. DO NOT induce emesis in:
- Caustic ingestion (acid or alkali) — re-exposure of mucosa → more necrosis
- Hydrocarbon ingestion — aspiration pneumonitis risk
- AMS / decreased LOC — aspiration risk
- Seizures or risk of seizures — timing of emesis may coincide with seizure
- Any ingestion more than 1–2h ago — toxin already absorbed; vomiting provides no benefit
Ipecac is obsolete — removed from the American Academy of Pediatrics guidance in 2003. If a patient or family used ipecac at home, note it but do not administer additional doses in the ED.
- External: eyes/skin = 15+ min water irrigation; inhalation = fresh air
- Activated charcoal: first-line GI decontamination; best within 1h; NOT for metals, alcohols, caustics, hydrocarbons
- No emesis for: caustics, hydrocarbons, AMS, seizure risk
- Ipecac = obsolete; WBI for iron/lead/SR drugs/body packers
- Caustic ingestion: dilute with water/milk; do NOT neutralize; endoscopy at 12–24h
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 6, Question 1
A 3-year-old ingested multiple iron tablets (children's vitamins) 90 minutes ago. You consider activated charcoal. Explain whether this is appropriate and what alternative decontamination strategy should be used.
Consider: Does charcoal adsorb iron? What GI decontamination method specifically targets heavy metals and large drug loads?
Activated charcoal does not adsorb iron (or other metals — lead, lithium). The charcoal mesh does not bind metal ions. For iron ingestion, the preferred GI decontamination is whole bowel irrigation (WBI) with polyethylene glycol-electrolyte lavage solution (GoLytely/Miralax) — given orally or via NGT until rectal effluent runs clear. WBI physically flushes tablets through the GI tract before they can be absorbed. Abdominal X-ray can confirm tablet location and guide management.
LO 7 — Enhanced Elimination
Methods to Enhance Toxin Elimination · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 7: Describe methods of enhanced elimination of toxins
▼ Urinary Alkalinization
Alkalinizing the urine (target urine pH 7.5–8.0) via IV sodium bicarbonate traps ionized drug in the tubule, preventing reabsorption → increased renal elimination.
Works for weakly acidic drugs (ionize in alkaline pH → cannot cross tubular epithelium → excreted):
- Salicylates (aspirin OD) — classic indication
- Phenobarbital
- Methotrexate
- Chlorpropamide
- Weak acid: ASA (pKa ~3.5) — in alkaline urine, drug is ionized → cannot cross lipid membrane → stays in urine → excreted
- Also: NaHCO₃ corrects acidosis from salicylate poisoning, reducing CNS penetration
▼ Hemodialysis (HD)
Hemodialysis directly removes toxin from blood. Most effective for toxins that are:
- Small molecular weight
- Low volume of distribution (stay in blood, not sequestered in tissues)
- Low protein binding
- Water-soluble
- Salicylates (severe ASA OD)
- Lithium
- Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
- Methanol / Metformin (severe cases)
- Ethylene glycol
Digoxin is NOT effectively removed by hemodialysis despite being a small molecule — it has a very large volume of distribution (7 L/kg) and high tissue binding. Hemodialysis cannot pull it out of tissue stores. Treatment: Digoxin-specific Fab antibodies (Dig-Fab).
▼ Multiple-Dose Activated Charcoal (MDAC)
Repeat doses of AC can interrupt enterohepatic recirculation and create a "gut dialysis" — drawing drug from blood back into the GI lumen for elimination.
Indicated for:
- Carbamazepine
- Phenobarbital
- Theophylline
- Aspirin (salicylates)
- Dapsone, quinine
- Carbamazepine
- Phenobarbital
- Salicylates
- Aminophylline/theophylline
▼ Other Enhanced Elimination Methods
| Method | Toxins | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoperfusion | Theophylline, some barbiturates, paraquat | Blood passed over charcoal or resin column; removes highly protein-bound drugs that HD cannot |
| Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT) | Lithium (when HD not tolerated) | Slower but continuous; good for hemodynamically unstable patients |
| Lipid emulsion therapy | Local anesthetic toxicity (bupivacaine), lipophilic drugs | "Lipid sink" — large lipid bolus sequesters lipophilic drug out of circulation |
- Urinary alkalinization (NaHCO₃): salicylates, phenobarbital — ion trapping in alkaline urine
- Hemodialysis — SLIME: Salicylates, Lithium, Isopropanol, Methanol/Metformin, Ethylene glycol
- MDAC: carbamazepine, phenobarbital, theophylline, aspirin — creates "gut dialysis"
- Digoxin is NOT removed by HD (large Vd + tissue binding); use Dig-Fab
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 7, Question 1
A patient presents with severe salicylate toxicity (serum level 90 mg/dL), with altered mental status, metabolic acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis. What two enhanced elimination strategies are indicated, and what must be monitored carefully?
Consider: What does alkaline urine do to a weak acid? When does salicylate OD require HD?
For severe salicylate toxicity (level >80–100 mg/dL, AMS, or renal failure), hemodialysis is indicated. Concurrently, urinary alkalinization (IV NaHCO₃, target urine pH 7.5–8) promotes ion trapping of salicylate in the tubule, increasing renal elimination. Critical monitoring: (1) Serum potassium — bicarbonate infusion can cause hypokalemia, and hypokalemia will actually prevent urine alkalinization (tubule secretes H⁺ in exchange for K⁺); (2) Glucose — salicylate depletes CNS glucose even with normal serum glucose; maintain high-normal glucose.
LO 8 — Symptoms by Agent
Characteristic Presentations of Specific Toxins · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 8: List the characteristic symptoms and signs associated with poisoning by various agents
▼ Opioids
Classic triad: Altered mental status + miosis (pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression
- Agents: heroin, morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methadone, tramadol
- Mechanism: μ-opioid receptor agonism in CNS → CNS depression, brainstem respiratory center suppression
- Antidote: naloxone (competitive antagonist)
- Caution: naloxone half-life (30–90 min) < most opioids → may need repeat dosing or continuous infusion
- Methadone has very long t½ — monitor for recurrent respiratory depression
Opioids cause miosis (constriction). Anticholinergics cause mydriasis (dilation). Sympathomimetics also cause mydriasis. This is a key exam discriminator. Only narcotic/opioid toxidrome has the combination of AMS + miosis.
▼ Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)
TCAs are among the most dangerous agents in intentional OD — rapid deterioration from normal to cardiac arrest within minutes.
Three receptor effects:
- Sodium channel blockade: Wide QRS (>120 ms), R wave in aVR >3mm → ventricular arrhythmias
- Alpha-1 blockade: Hypotension, vasodilation
- Anticholinergic effects: Tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, hyperthermia, AMS
- Also: GABA-A antagonism → seizures
Treatment: Sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV) narrows QRS and stabilizes rhythm. Goal serum pH 7.45–7.55. Avoid flumazenil (lowers seizure threshold) and physostigmine.
▼ Salicylates (Aspirin)
- Early: Tinnitus, nausea/vomiting, hyperpnea (direct respiratory center stimulation) → respiratory alkalosis
- Late: Uncoupled oxidative phosphorylation → metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, diaphoresis
- Severe: AMS, pulmonary edema, CNS salicylate toxicity (occurs even with normal serum level if CNS acidotic)
- Classic lab: mixed respiratory alkalosis + metabolic acidosis
- Treatment: urinary alkalinization, hydration, HD if severe
▼ Acetaminophen (APAP)
APAP toxicity classically progresses through 4 phases:
| Phase | Time | Features |
|---|---|---|
| I | 0–24h | Asymptomatic or mild N/V — "silent phase" |
| II | 24–72h | RUQ pain, rising LFTs (AST/ALT >1000), decreased urine output |
| III | 72–96h | Peak hepatotoxicity — AST/ALT in tens of thousands, coagulopathy, jaundice, AMS, renal failure |
| IV | 4 days–2 weeks | Recovery (if survives) or death from liver failure |
Mechanism: NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine) — toxic metabolite from CYP2E1. Normally detoxified by glutathione; overwhelms stores in OD → centrilobular hepatic necrosis
Treatment: NAC (N-acetylcysteine) — replenishes glutathione. Start within 8–10h for maximum efficacy; still beneficial up to 24h+.
▼ Carbon Monoxide
- Headache, nausea, malaise — classic "flu without fever"
- Multiple household members + pets affected simultaneously
- Confusion, syncope in moderate exposure; coma/seizures/death in severe
- Pulse ox unreliable — SpO₂ falsely normal; need co-oximetry
- Cherry red skin — late finding, <30% of patients, not reliable
▼ Iron Poisoning
Iron toxicity has a characteristic 5-phase course:
- Phase 1 (0–6h): GI — vomiting, diarrhea, GI hemorrhage (direct irritation)
- Phase 2 (6–24h): Apparent recovery — "quiet phase"
- Phase 3 (12–48h): Systemic toxicity — metabolic acidosis, shock, coagulopathy
- Phase 4 (2–4 days): Hepatic necrosis, liver failure
- Phase 5 (2–8 weeks): Pyloric/bowel obstruction from scarring
Antidote: Deferoxamine (chelates free iron in plasma)
After the initial GI phase, patients may appear to improve for 6–24 hours — this is deceptive. Systemic iron toxicity with shock and hepatic failure follows. Do NOT discharge a patient with iron ingestion who appears to improve in Phase 2 without adequate follow-up and monitoring.
▼ Toxic Alcohols (Methanol & Ethylene Glycol)
- Initial: ethanol-like intoxication
- Latent 12–24h (while metabolite forms)
- Visual changes: blurring → blindness (formic acid damages optic nerve)
- Anion gap metabolic acidosis
- Metabolite: formate (from formic acid)
- Initial: ethanol-like intoxication
- 12–36h: renal failure
- Calcium oxalate crystals in urine
- Anion gap metabolic acidosis
- Metabolite: oxalic acid → oxalate crystals
Both: Elevated osmol gap (parent compound) + anion gap metabolic acidosis (metabolites). Antidote: fomepizole (4-MP) — inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, blocks formation of toxic metabolites.
- Opioid: AMS + miosis + ↓ respirations → naloxone
- TCA: Wide QRS + hypotension + seizures + anticholinergic → NaHCO₃
- Salicylate: Tinnitus + resp alkalosis → met acidosis → urinary alkalinization/HD
- APAP: Silent → RUQ pain + ↑LFTs → liver failure → NAC
- CO: Flu without fever + multi-family illness → 100% O₂
- Iron: GI bleed → apparent recovery → hepatic failure → deferoxamine
- Methanol: visual changes + AGMA → fomepizole
- EG (antifreeze): renal failure + oxalate crystals + AGMA → fomepizole
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 8, Question 1
A 45-year-old construction worker presents to the ED confused and febrile (38.9°C). He has dry skin, mydriasis, and urinary retention. His HR is 128. His coworkers say he "drank from someone's water bottle that smelled weird." Map these findings to the most likely toxidrome and identify a plausible agent.
Consider: Dry skin vs. diaphoresis? Mydriasis vs. miosis? Hot? Which mnemonic applies?
This is a textbook anticholinergic presentation: hot as a hare (hyperthermia), dry as a bone (dry skin — not diaphoresis), red as a beet (flushing), mad as a hatter (confusion/AMS), plus mydriasis, tachycardia, and urinary retention. Possible agents: atropine, scopolamine, antihistamines (diphenhydramine), TCA (though TCAs also have sodium channel effects), jimsonweed (Datura). Treatment is supportive; physostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) can be used in pure anticholinergic toxicity but is avoided in TCA OD (risk of seizures/asystole).
LO 9 — Time Course of Toxicity
Delayed vs. Rapid Toxicity · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 9: Recognize that some toxins cause delayed toxicity, and identify which ones
▼ Agents with Delayed Toxicity
Key concept: These patients may look well initially and be discharged prematurely. Knowing which toxins have delayed effects is critical for appropriate observation and treatment timing.
| Toxin | Onset of Toxicity | What Happens | Critical Action |
|---|---|---|---|
| APAP | 24–72 hours | NAPQI accumulation → centrilobular hepatic necrosis | Get APAP level + time → nomogram → NAC |
| Hydrofluoric acid | Hours after skin contact | Systemic hypocalcemia + hypomagnesemia → cardiac arrhythmia | Topical/IV/intra-arterial calcium gluconate |
| Ethylene glycol | 12–36 hours for renal failure | Initial EtOH-like intoxication; then oxalic acid accumulates → renal tubular necrosis | Fomepizole; HD if renal failure |
| Methanol | 12–24 hours for visual symptoms | Formic acid accumulates → optic nerve damage (blindness) | Fomepizole; HD; folate supplementation |
| Iron | Phase 2 apparent recovery 6–24h | Then systemic/hepatic toxicity in Phase 3 (12–48h) | Do NOT discharge in apparent recovery phase |
| Sulfonylureas | Hours to 12h+ | Delayed/prolonged hypoglycemia (esp. long-acting: glipizide, glyburide) | Serial glucose monitoring 12–24h; octreotide |
| SR/XR medications | Hours | Extended-release formulations delay peak serum levels | Observe longer; WBI for undissolved tablets |
For APAP, methanol, EG, iron, and sulfonylureas, the patient may appear completely well in the first hours after ingestion. Clinical stability at presentation does not equal safety — always check levels and use nomograms/monitoring protocols before discharge.
▼ Agents with Rapid/Early Toxicity
| Toxin | Onset | Presentation |
|---|---|---|
| Isoniazid (INH) | 30–60 minutes | Refractory seizures (GABA depletion via pyridoxine depletion); treat with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) |
| TCAs | Minutes to 1–2h | Rapid cardiac toxicity (wide QRS, VT/VF), seizures, coma — can deteriorate within minutes |
| Nicotine | Minutes | Initial nicotinic stimulation (tachycardia, HTN, fasciculations) → then paralysis; early seizures |
| Cyanide | Seconds to minutes (inhalation) | Cellular asphyxiation (inhibits cytochrome oxidase); rapid coma, seizures, lactic acidosis |
| Organophosphates | Minutes | Cholinergic crisis (SLUDGE) including bronchospasm/respiratory failure |
- Patient on INH for TB prophylaxis develops seizures
- Mechanism: INH depletes pyridoxine (B6) → ↓ GABA synthesis → seizures
- Benzos are partially effective — but definitive treatment is pyridoxine (gram for gram)
- Also causes B6-responsive peripheral neuropathy with chronic use
- Delayed: APAP (24–72h), hydrofluoric acid (hours), EG/methanol (12–36h), iron (Phase 2 then 3), sulfonylureas
- Rapid: INH (30–60 min seizures), TCAs (minutes), nicotine, cyanide, organophosphates
- A well-appearing patient is not necessarily safe — identify delayed toxins and admit for monitoring
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 9, Question 1
A patient taking INH for latent TB presents to the ED with generalized tonic-clonic seizures refractory to two doses of IV lorazepam. What is the antidote and mechanism, and why are benzodiazepines alone ineffective?
Consider: What does INH do to GABA synthesis? What cofactor is depleted?
INH inhibits pyridoxine (B6) metabolism by interfering with pyridoxal kinase. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) to synthesize GABA. With depleted B6, GABA production is severely impaired, causing seizures that are refractory to benzodiazepines (which work by potentiating GABA at GABA-A receptors — but if there's no GABA to potentiate, benzos fail). Pyridoxine (gram for gram with estimated INH dose, up to 5g empirically) directly restores GABA synthesis and terminates seizures.
LO 10 — Antidotes
Role of Antidotes in Poisoning Treatment · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 10: Describe the role of antidotes in the treatment of poisoning
▼ The Role of Antidotes — Key Concept
Antidotes work through several mechanisms:
- Competitive antagonism: naloxone (blocks opioid receptor), flumazenil (blocks benzo receptor)
- Enzyme inhibition: fomepizole (inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase)
- Chelation: deferoxamine (iron), EDTA/BAL (lead/heavy metals)
- Antibody binding: Dig-Fab (digoxin), CroFab (snake venom)
- Substrate replenishment: NAC (replenishes glutathione), pyridoxine (INH), methylene blue (methemoglobin)
- Metabolic bypass: hydroxocobalamin (cyanide)
▼ Antidote Reference Table
| Toxin | Antidote | Mechanism |
|---|---|---|
| Acetaminophen (APAP) | N-acetylcysteine (NAC) | Replenishes glutathione; directly conjugates NAPQI |
| Opioids | Naloxone | Competitive μ-opioid receptor antagonist |
| Benzodiazepines | Flumazenil | Competitive GABA-A receptor antagonist (⚠️ use cautiously — can precipitate withdrawal seizures) |
| Beta-blockers | Glucagon, high-dose insulin | Glucagon bypasses blocked β-receptors to ↑ cAMP; insulin-glucose for cardiac contractility |
| Calcium channel blockers | Calcium, glucagon, high-dose insulin, lipid emulsion | Calcium competes for blocked channels; insulin improves cardiac metabolism |
| Digoxin | Digoxin-specific Fab (Dig-Fab) | Antibody fragments bind free digoxin, remove from Na/K-ATPase |
| Organophosphates | Atropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM) | Atropine: antimuscarinic; pralidoxime: reactivates acetylcholinesterase (before aging) |
| Methanol/Ethylene glycol | Fomepizole (4-MP) | Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase → blocks toxic metabolite formation |
| Carbon monoxide | 100% O₂ / Hyperbaric O₂ | Mass action displaces CO from hemoglobin; reduces COHb t½ |
| Cyanide | Hydroxocobalamin (1st line); or sodium nitrite + sodium thiosulfate | Hydroxocobalamin binds CN⁻ → cyanocobalamin (excreted); nitrite → methemoglobin competes for CN⁻; thiosulfate → thiocyanate (excreted) |
| Iron | Deferoxamine | Chelates free plasma iron → ferrioxamine (excreted in urine) |
| Lead | Succimer, EDTA, BAL | Chelation (see LO 2) |
| Methemoglobin | Methylene blue | Accepts electrons from NADPH → reduces Fe³⁺ back to Fe²⁺ |
| Warfarin | Vitamin K1; FFP (acute reversal) | Restores vitamin K–dependent clotting factors |
| Heparin | Protamine sulfate | Ionic binding neutralizes heparin |
| Isoniazid (INH) | Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) | Restores B6-dependent GABA synthesis |
| TCA | Sodium bicarbonate | Narrows QRS (Na loading + alkalinization) |
| Sulfonylureas | Octreotide | Suppresses pancreatic insulin secretion; prevents rebound hypoglycemia |
▼ High-Yield Antidotes — Additional Details
💉 Naloxone — Important Nuances
- Half-life 30–90 min — much shorter than most opioids
- May need repeat dosing or continuous infusion (rule: 2/3 of reversal dose per hour)
- Precipitates acute withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients — use lowest effective dose
- Does NOT reverse buprenorphine well at standard doses (high receptor affinity)
- Route: IV preferred; also IM, intranasal (Narcan nasal spray)
🧪 Fomepizole (4-MP) vs. Ethanol
- Both inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase to block toxic metabolite formation from methanol and EG
- Fomepizole preferred (no CNS depression, no hypoglycemia, easier to dose)
- Ethanol used if fomepizole unavailable (maintains BAL ~100 mg/dL)
- Contraindicated in benzodiazepine-dependent patients — can precipitate acute withdrawal seizures
- Avoid in TCA overdose — removing benzo-mediated CNS protection can worsen TCA-induced seizures/arrhythmias
- Short half-life — resedation can occur
- Not routinely recommended in unknown overdose
- APAP → NAC
- Opioids → naloxone
- Organophosphates → atropine + pralidoxime
- Digoxin → Dig-Fab (NOT hemodialysis)
- Methanol/EG → fomepizole
- Cyanide → hydroxocobalamin
- CO → 100% O₂
- INH → pyridoxine
- Lead → succimer/BAL/EDTA
- Methemoglobin → methylene blue
- TCA → sodium bicarbonate (for QRS widening)
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 10, Question 1
A 72-year-old man on digoxin for atrial fibrillation presents with nausea, yellow-green visual halos, and his EKG shows bidirectional ventricular tachycardia with complete heart block. His digoxin level is 4.2 ng/mL (therapeutic 0.5–2.0). What is the antidote and why is hemodialysis ineffective?
Consider: Digoxin's pharmacokinetics — Vd, protein binding, how it distributes in the body.
Dig-Fab binds free digoxin in plasma, rapidly reversing toxicity. Bidirectional VT is the hallmark arrhythmia of digoxin toxicity. Hemodialysis is ineffective despite digoxin's small molecular weight because it has an enormous volume of distribution (~7 L/kg) — most digoxin is sequestered in skeletal muscle and tissue, not freely circulating in plasma. HD can only remove what's in the blood. Dig-Fab works by pulling digoxin out of tissue stores (by lowering free plasma levels), effectively redistributing it back into circulation where it's then bound by the antibody fragment and excreted renally.
LO 11 — Supportive Care
Role of Supportive Care in Poisoning · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 11: Describe the role of supportive care in the treatment of poisoning
▼ Supportive Care as the Cornerstone
- Specific antidotes exist for only a minority of toxic exposures
- For the vast majority of poisonings, treatment is supportive — allowing the body to metabolize and eliminate the toxin
- Supportive care keeps patients alive long enough for natural detoxification
- Even when antidotes are available, supportive care is always provided concurrently
▼ Core Supportive Measures
| Measure | Indication / Notes |
|---|---|
| Airway management | Intubate if: GCS ≤8, loss of airway protective reflexes, severe respiratory depression, anticipated clinical deterioration |
| Supplemental O₂ | All patients with toxin-related respiratory depression; always in CO poisoning |
| IV access + fluids | Maintain perfusion; correct dehydration from vomiting/diaphoresis |
| Cardiac monitoring | Continuous telemetry + serial EKGs for all significant ingestions |
| Seizure management | Benzodiazepines first-line (lorazepam, diazepam); escalate to phenobarbital/propofol if refractory |
| Hypotension | IV fluids first; vasopressors if refractory; specific agents depend on toxin (e.g., NaHCO₃ for TCA, calcium for CCB, glucagon for beta-blocker) |
| Temperature regulation | Hyperthermia (anticholinergic, sympathomimetic) — external cooling; Hypothermia — warming |
| Blood glucose | Serial glucose checks; IV dextrose for hypoglycemia (sulfonylureas, ethanol, β-blockers) |
| Psychiatric evaluation | Mandatory for all intentional overdoses prior to discharge |
| Poison Control consultation | 1-800-222-1222; call early and as needed throughout management |
▼ Systems-Based Approach
- O₂, airway positioning
- Intubation threshold: low
- Aspiration precautions
- Treat bronchospasm (organophosphate/cholinergic: atropine)
- Continuous monitoring
- Serial EKGs
- Correct electrolytes (K, Mg)
- Vasopressors if refractory hypotension
- Benzodiazepines for seizures
- Avoid physical restraints (worsens hyperthermia)
- Frequent neuro exams
- Head CT if unclear etiology of AMS
- Serial electrolytes, glucose, LFTs
- Urine output monitoring
- Urinary catheter for anuric/oliguric states
- Renal replacement if acute renal failure (EG, iron)
- Supportive care = cornerstone of poisoning management (most toxins have no antidote)
- Airway → low threshold to intubate in AMS or respiratory depression
- Seizures → benzodiazepines first-line
- Wide QRS + TCA → sodium bicarbonate (not just antiarrhythmics)
- Intentional OD → mandatory psychiatric evaluation before discharge
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 11, Question 1
A 19-year-old is admitted after an intentional overdose of an unknown substance. She is now alert, hemodynamically stable, and medically cleared. Her physician writes a discharge order. What critical step is missing before discharge?
Consider: What is required by standard of care for all intentional overdoses?
All patients with intentional self-poisoning (overdose) must undergo a psychiatric evaluation before discharge to assess suicide risk, intent, safety planning, and the need for inpatient psychiatric admission. Medical clearance alone is insufficient. Additionally, delayed toxins (APAP, salicylates) must be ruled out with appropriate serum levels and adequate observation periods before declaring the patient "medically cleared." The safety of the home environment and means restriction should also be assessed.
LO 12 — Toxidromes
Classic Toxic Syndromes · HoyaDocs GI Block
- LO 12: Describe the major toxidromes
▼ Anticholinergic Toxidrome
- Hot as a hare — hyperthermia (lost sweating)
- Dry as a bone — anhidrosis, dry mucous membranes
- Red as a beet — flushing (vasodilation without sweating)
- Mad as a hatter — AMS, agitation, delirium, hallucinations
Plus: "Can't see, can't spit, can't pee, can't sh*t"
- Can't see — mydriasis (fixed dilated pupils), cycloplegia, blurred vision
- Can't spit — dry mouth, decreased secretions
- Can't pee — urinary retention
- Can't sh*t — ileus/constipation, decreased bowel sounds
🔑 Additional Features
- Tachycardia (lost vagal brake)
- Seizures (severe toxicity)
- Tachypnea
- Mydriasis — CRITICAL distinguishing feature
🔑 Causative Agents
- Atropine, scopolamine, benztropine
- Antihistamines (diphenhydramine, promethazine)
- TCAs (also have sodium channel + alpha-1 effects)
- Antipsychotics (especially phenothiazines)
- Plants: jimsonweed (Datura stramonium), deadly nightshade (Atropa belladonna)
🔑 Treatment
- Supportive: cooling, benzos for agitation/seizures
- Physostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor): reverses pure anticholinergic toxicity; contraindicated in TCA OD
▼ Cholinergic Toxidrome
- Salivation
- Lacrimation
- Urination
- Defecation / Diarrhea
- GI distress (cramping)
- Emesis
- Defecation/Diarrhea
- Urination
- Miosis ← key distinguishing feature
- Bradycardia / Bronchospasm / Bronchorrhea ← can be fatal
- Emesis
- Lacrimation
- Salivation / Seizures
🔑 Nicotinic Effects (also present)
- Tachycardia, hypertension (nicotinic ganglionic stimulation)
- Fasciculations (NMJ stimulation)
- Muscle weakness → paralysis (depolarizing block at NMJ)
- Diaphoresis
🔑 Causative Agents
- Organophosphates (insecticides: malathion, parathion; nerve agents: sarin, VX) — inhibit acetylcholinesterase irreversibly
- Carbamates (aldicarb) — inhibit acetylcholinesterase reversibly
- Pilocarpine, bethanechol (direct agonists)
- Mushrooms (Clitocybe, Inocybe species — "SLUDGE mushrooms")
🔑 Treatment
- Atropine: competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptors; large doses may be needed; titrate to drying of secretions (endpoint = dry lungs, not tachycardia)
- Pralidoxime (2-PAM): reactivates acetylcholinesterase — must be given early before "aging" (irreversible binding occurs in organophosphate toxicity; not needed for carbamates)
- Benzodiazepines for seizures
Pralidoxime must be given before "aging" — the irreversible covalent bonding of organophosphate to acetylcholinesterase. Once aging occurs (hours to days depending on the specific organophosphate), pralidoxime is ineffective. Early administration is critical. Pralidoxime is not indicated for carbamate poisoning (the bond is reversible spontaneously).
▼ Sympathomimetic Toxidrome
| Feature | Sympathomimetic | vs. Anticholinergic |
|---|---|---|
| Tachycardia | ✓ | ✓ |
| Hyperthermia | ✓ | ✓ |
| Mydriasis | ✓ | ✓ |
| AMS/Agitation | ✓ | ✓ |
| Skin | Moist/diaphoretic ← KEY | Dry ← KEY |
| Bowel sounds | Hyperactive ← KEY | Decreased/absent ← KEY |
🔑 Causative Agents
- Cocaine, amphetamines (meth, MDMA/ecstasy)
- Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine
- Caffeine (in very high doses)
- Theophylline
🔑 Treatment
- Benzodiazepines: first-line for agitation, seizures, tachycardia, and hypertension
- External cooling for hyperthermia
- Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine OD (risk of unopposed alpha → severe HTN)
- Nitrates or calcium channel blockers for coronary vasospasm (cocaine)
▼ Narcotic / Opioid Toxidrome
- 1. AMS (sedation, coma)
- 2. Miosis (pinpoint pupils) ← KEY differentiator
- 3. Respiratory depression (↓ rate, shallow)
Plus: bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, hyporeflexia, decreased bowel sounds
🔑 Treatment
- Naloxone (competitive opioid antagonist)
- May need repeat doses or infusion (naloxone t½ < opioid t½)
- Support ventilation while preparing naloxone
▼ Side-by-Side Toxidrome Comparison
| Feature | Anticholinergic | Cholinergic | Sympathomimetic | Opioid |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Pupils | Mydriasis ↑ | Miosis ↓ | Mydriasis ↑ | Miosis ↓↓ |
| HR | Tachycardia | Bradycardia | Tachycardia | Bradycardia |
| BP | Variable/↑ | ↓ (or ↑ nicotinic) | ↑↑ | ↓ |
| Temp | ↑↑ | Normal/↑ | ↑↑ | ↓ |
| Skin | Dry, flushed | Wet (diaphoretic) | Wet (diaphoretic) | Normal/cool |
| Secretions | ↓↓ Dry | ↑↑ SLUDGE | Mild ↑ | ↓ |
| Bowel sounds | ↓ (ileus) | ↑↑ (diarrhea) | ↑ | ↓ |
| Urination | Retention ↓ | Urination ↑ | Variable | Retention ↓ |
| Mental status | Agitation, delirium | AMS (seizures) | Agitation, paranoia | Sedation, coma |
| Respiration | Tachypnea | Bronchospasm ↓ | Tachypnea | ↓↓ Depression |
| Key antidote | Physostigmine | Atropine + 2-PAM | Benzos | Naloxone |
- Anticholinergic: Hot/Dry/Red/Mad + mydriasis + tachycardia + ↓ secretions → physostigmine (not with TCAs)
- Cholinergic: SLUDGE + DUMBELS + miosis + bradycardia + bronchorrhea → atropine + pralidoxime
- Sympathomimetic: Tachycardia + HTN + hyperthermia + diaphoresis + mydriasis → benzos (NO beta-blockers in cocaine)
- Opioid: AMS + miosis + respiratory depression → naloxone
- Key differentiator: Skin — anticholinergic = DRY; sympathomimetic = WET
🧠 Testing Your Understanding!
Testing Your Understanding — LO 12, Question 1
A farm worker is brought in unresponsive after working in a field that was recently sprayed. His clothing is wet. Exam: miosis, bradycardia (HR 42), diaphoresis, excessive salivation and lacrimation, audible wheezing, and muscle fasciculations. Map the specific findings to the toxidrome and explain each mechanistically.
Consider: What system is being overstimulated? What separates muscarinic from nicotinic effects?
This is classic organophosphate poisoning (pesticide exposure). Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase → excessive acetylcholine (ACh) accumulation at all cholinergic synapses:
Muscarinic effects (parasympathetic): miosis (miosis ≠ mydriasis — ACh constricts pupils), bradycardia (↑ vagal tone), diaphoresis, salivation/lacrimation (SLUDGE), bronchospasm/bronchorrhea (wheezing — potentially fatal)
Nicotinic effects (NMJ + ganglia): fasciculations (NMJ overstimulation → depolarizing block), then muscle weakness/paralysis; tachycardia/HTN from ganglionic stimulation (may be masked by bradycardia)
Treatment: (1) Atropine — blocks muscarinic effects; titrate to drying of secretions (not heart rate); (2) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) — reactivates acetylcholinesterase before aging; must be given early.
Practice Questions
Lecture 21 — Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block
LOs 1–2 — Epidemiology & Fatal Substances (Q1–Q3)
Question 1
According to 2022 National Poison Data System (NPDS) data, approximately what percentage of all reported poisoning exposures in the United States involve children 5 years old or younger?
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 40%
D. 60%
E. 75%
The NPDS 2022 annual report documents approximately 40% of all human exposures occur in children ≤5 years. These are predominantly unintentional (exploratory) ingestions with relatively low fatality rates. In contrast, the majority of fatalities occur in adults, most often from intentional (self-harm) overdoses. Answer choices A and B underestimate pediatric exposure prevalence; D and E greatly overestimate it.
Question 2
A toxicologist is presenting data from the NPDS 2022 annual report. Which of the following substance categories is associated with the greatest number of fatalities in the NPDS database?
A. Analgesics (including acetaminophen)
B. Opioids
C. Sedative/hypnotics
D. Antidepressants
E. Cleaning substances
The NPDS 2022 fatality ranking: sedative/hypnotics (299) > APAP alone (270) > opioids (244) > alcohols (231). Note that "analgesics" is the #1 exposure category (11.5% of all calls) but APAP specifically is #2 in fatalities. Opioids are #3 in NPDS fatalities — though total opioid deaths nationally (CDC data) vastly exceed NPDS numbers because most opioid fatalities go directly to emergency services without a poison control call. Cleaning substances are a top exposure category in children but rarely fatal. Antidepressants (especially TCAs) are dangerous but rank lower in overall fatalities.
Question 3
A 2-year-old is brought in after ingesting something from the grandmother's medicine cabinet. She is found to have bradycardia (HR 42), hypotension, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia on EKG. This presentation is most consistent with ingestion of which of the following?
A. Aspirin
B. Diphenhydramine
C. Digoxin
D. Lisinopril
E. Metformin
Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia (alternating QRS axis) is the hallmark EKG finding of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia and varying degrees of AV block are also characteristic. The scenario of a child accessing a grandparent's "heart medication" and developing cardiac toxicity strongly suggests a cardiac glycoside (digoxin). Treatment: Digoxin-specific Fab antibody fragments. Aspirin causes metabolic acidosis/tinnitus, not bradycardia. Diphenhydramine causes anticholinergic toxidrome with tachycardia. Lisinopril causes hypotension but not this specific arrhythmia. Metformin can cause lactic acidosis in overdose.
LOs 3–5 — History-Taking, Alert Presentations, Labs (Q4–Q6)
Question 4
A 28-year-old woman presents to the ED after an intentional overdose. She states she "only took Benadryl." She appears well and requests to leave. Which of the following additional laboratory tests must be obtained regardless of her stated history?
A. Serum lithium level
B. Serum acetaminophen and salicylate levels
C. Urine drug screen only
D. CBC and CMP only
E. No labs needed if she is asymptomatic
In ALL intentional overdoses, serum acetaminophen and salicylate levels must be obtained regardless of the stated ingestion. Both are silent toxins with delayed presentations — APAP causes hepatotoxicity 24–72h later and salicylate causes mixed acid-base disorder. Patients with intentional overdose frequently minimize or misstate what they took. A normal appearing patient who "only took Benadryl" may have co-ingested APAP (commonly combined in products like NyQuil, Tylenol PM). Urine drug screen (C) alone is insufficient — it misses APAP and salicylates. D is reasonable but incomplete without the specific drug levels. E is dangerous — never send home an intentional OD without appropriate labs and psychiatric evaluation.
Question 5
In January, a family of 5 visits the ED. The parents and 2 of the 3 children have severe headaches, nausea, and confusion. The youngest child (4 months) is irritable. All were well yesterday. Their dog has also been lethargic for 2 days. Standard pulse oximetry shows SpO₂ of 99% in all affected members. Which is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?
A. Lumbar puncture to evaluate for meningitis
B. CT head for intracranial pathology
C. Arterial blood gas with co-oximetry to measure carboxyhemoglobin
D. Urine drug screen
E. Blood cultures for bacteremia
The classic CO poisoning presentation: multiple household members (including pets) with flu-like illness without fever in winter. Standard pulse oximetry is falsely normal because it cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) from oxyhemoglobin — both absorb similarly at the measured wavelengths. Co-oximetry on ABG directly measures COHb. The family should be removed from the home immediately. Treatment: 100% O₂ via non-rebreather mask; hyperbaric O₂ for severe cases or pregnant patients. LP (A) and CT head (B) are premature without first confirming/ruling out CO. Blood cultures (E) are for suspected bacteremia with fever, not appropriate here.
Question 6
A 22-year-old man presents unresponsive after a known drug ingestion. His EKG shows a QRS of 180 ms and a prolonged QTc of 560 ms. He is hypotensive at 78/40. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention targeting the EKG abnormality?
A. IV amiodarone
B. Synchronized cardioversion
C. IV sodium bicarbonate
D. IV calcium gluconate
E. IV magnesium sulfate only
Wide QRS (>120 ms) with hemodynamic instability in an overdose context strongly suggests TCA (tricyclic antidepressant) toxicity via sodium channel blockade. The treatment for TCA-induced wide QRS is sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV) — the sodium load reverses the channel blockade AND alkalinization shifts the equilibrium away from channel binding. This narrows the QRS and can be life-saving. Amiodarone (A) is contraindicated in TCA OD as it can worsen QT prolongation and arrhythmias. Cardioversion (B) is not indicated for this wide complex tachycardia in TCA OD. Calcium (D) is for calcium channel blocker or hyperkalemia. Magnesium (E) treats QT-related torsades de pointes, not wide QRS.
LOs 6–7 — Decontamination & Enhanced Elimination (Q7–Q9)
Question 7
A 3-year-old ingests drain cleaner (sodium hydroxide) at home. His mother calls 911. The paramedics ask you what to do while en route. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate home management?
A. Induce vomiting immediately
B. Give a small amount of water or milk to dilute
C. Administer activated charcoal
D. Give orange juice to neutralize the alkali
E. Do nothing; wait for EMS
For caustic ingestion (acid or alkali), dilution with a small amount of water or milk (120–240 mL) is appropriate. This reduces the concentration of the caustic agent at the mucosal surface. Never induce vomiting (A) — re-exposing damaged esophageal mucosa to caustic material causes additional necrosis and risks perforation. Never neutralize (D) — acid-base neutralization is exothermic and generates heat, causing thermal injury on top of chemical injury. Activated charcoal (C) is not indicated for caustic ingestion (interferes with endoscopy, no benefit). Doing nothing (E) misses the opportunity for immediate dilution.
Question 8
A patient with severe aspirin (salicylate) overdose has a serum level of 95 mg/dL with altered mental status and metabolic acidosis. Which of the following enhanced elimination strategies is MOST appropriate at this level of toxicity?
A. Urinary acidification with ammonium chloride
B. Urinary alkalinization with IV sodium bicarbonate only
C. Hemodialysis
D. Multiple-dose activated charcoal only
E. Hemoperfusion
At a salicylate level of 95 mg/dL with altered mental status and metabolic acidosis, hemodialysis is indicated. Hemodialysis indications for salicylate OD include: level >80–100 mg/dL, AMS, renal failure, pulmonary edema, or clinical deterioration. Urinary alkalinization (B) is a useful adjunct but insufficient alone at this level of toxicity. Urinary acidification (A) is actually harmful — it traps ionized salicylate in the blood, worsening toxicity. MDAC (D) can help reduce absorption but is not sufficient for severe toxicity. Hemoperfusion (E) is indicated for theophylline, not the first-line for salicylates.
Question 9
Which of the following correctly matches the toxin to the method by which it is most effectively eliminated?
A. Digoxin — hemodialysis
B. Lithium — multiple-dose activated charcoal
C. Methanol — urinary alkalinization
D. Ethylene glycol — hemodialysis
E. Phenobarbital — hemodialysis
Ethylene glycol is in the SLIME group dialyzable toxins: Salicylates, Lithium, Isopropanol, Methanol/Metformin, Ethylene glycol.
Why others are wrong: A — Digoxin is NOT effectively removed by HD (large Vd, tissue-bound; use Dig-Fab). B — Lithium is removed by HD, not MDAC (charcoal doesn't adsorb lithium). C — Methanol is removed by HD, not urinary alkalinization (urinary alkalinization works for weak acids like salicylates and phenobarbital, not alcohols). E — Phenobarbital is removed by MDAC (multiple-dose activated charcoal creates "gut dialysis") and urinary alkalinization, not hemodialysis primarily.
LOs 8–11 — Symptoms, Time Course, Antidotes & Supportive Care (Q10–Q15)
Question 10
A 34-year-old woman is brought in confused after an intentional overdose. She is afebrile. Exam shows HR 130, BP 88/52, pupils 3mm bilaterally, and decreased respiratory rate of 8/min with oxygen saturation 89%. Which antidote should be administered immediately?
A. N-acetylcysteine
B. Sodium bicarbonate
C. Naloxone
D. Flumazenil
E. Glucagon
The opioid triad: AMS + miosis (3mm/pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression. This patient has all three, plus hypotension — classic opioid overdose presentation. Naloxone (competitive μ-opioid antagonist) should be given immediately (IV, IM, or intranasal). While preparing naloxone, support ventilation with bag-mask if needed. NAC (A) is for APAP toxicity — no hepatotoxicity signs here. NaHCO₃ (B) is for TCA wide QRS. Flumazenil (D) would be for benzodiazepine reversal — benzodiazepines cause sedation but NOT miosis. Glucagon (E) is for beta-blocker toxicity.
Question 11
A 19-year-old college student is found unresponsive at a party. He is taken to the ED where his APAP level drawn at 4 hours post-ingestion is 210 mcg/mL. He is currently asymptomatic with normal LFTs. His roommate reports he took "a lot of Tylenol" about 4 hours ago. What is the most appropriate management?
A. Discharge with instructions to return if symptoms develop
B. Observe for 24 hours with repeat LFTs; no treatment needed until LFTs rise
C. Initiate N-acetylcysteine (NAC) treatment now
D. Perform gastric lavage to remove remaining APAP
E. Obtain liver biopsy to guide treatment decisions
A 4-hour serum APAP level of 210 mcg/mL falls in the "treatment line" on the Rumack-Matthew nomogram (the treatment threshold at 4h is approximately 150 mcg/mL). NAC should be started immediately — it is most effective within 8–10 hours of ingestion. Do NOT wait for symptoms or LFT elevation: APAP toxicity is clinically silent during the first 24 hours (Phase I). By the time symptoms appear (Phase II–III), significant hepatocellular necrosis may already be occurring. Discharging (A) or observing without treatment (B) would likely result in fulminant liver failure. Gastric lavage (D) is not indicated at 4 hours post-ingestion (beyond optimal window, and APAP is already absorbed). Liver biopsy (E) has no role in acute poisoning management.
Question 12
A patient presents with acute ethylene glycol (antifreeze) ingestion. Fomepizole is initiated. Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which fomepizole prevents toxicity?
A. It directly chelates ethylene glycol in the bloodstream
B. It inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing formation of oxalic acid
C. It competitively displaces ethylene glycol from renal tubular binding sites
D. It alkalinizes the urine, trapping ethylene glycol metabolites
E. It accelerates hepatic metabolism of ethylene glycol to nontoxic metabolites
Ethylene glycol itself is relatively nontoxic. Its toxicity comes from its metabolite: alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) converts EG → glycolaldehyde → glycolic acid → oxalic acid. Oxalic acid then binds calcium → calcium oxalate crystals (deposit in renal tubules → acute tubular necrosis). Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole, 4-MP) is a potent inhibitor of ADH — by blocking this enzyme, it prevents formation of the toxic metabolites. The parent compound (EG) is then eliminated unchanged by the kidneys and by hemodialysis. This same mechanism applies to methanol toxicity (ADH → formic acid → optic nerve damage/blindness).
Question 13
A 55-year-old farmer develops severe abdominal cramping, excessive salivation and tearing, urinary incontinence, and begins seizing 30 minutes after spraying pesticides. Which of the following is the correct combination of antidotes?
A. Naloxone + flumazenil
B. N-acetylcysteine + sodium bicarbonate
C. Atropine + pralidoxime
D. Physostigmine + pyridoxine
E. Deferoxamine + succimer
This is organophosphate poisoning (pesticide exposure) causing a cholinergic toxidrome: SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/cramping, emesis) + seizures. Treatment: (1) Atropine — competitive muscarinic antagonist; blocks excessive ACh at muscarinic receptors; give large doses (2–4 mg IV, repeat every 5–10 min) titrating to drying of secretions; (2) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) — reactivates acetylcholinesterase by cleaving the organophosphate-enzyme bond; must be given early before "aging"; also treats nicotinic effects (fasciculations, paralysis) that atropine cannot. Benzos treat seizures concurrently. Physostigmine (D) does the opposite of what is needed — it inhibits cholinesterase and would worsen the cholinergic crisis.
Question 14
A patient on isoniazid (INH) for active TB presents with status epilepticus refractory to 4 mg IV lorazepam and 2 mg IV lorazepam repeated doses. What is the most appropriate next intervention?
A. Phenytoin loading dose
B. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) IV
C. Sodium bicarbonate
D. N-acetylcysteine
E. Magnesium sulfate
INH-induced seizures are characteristically refractory to benzodiazepines. The mechanism: INH inhibits pyridoxal kinase → depleted pyridoxal phosphate (active B6) → impaired glutamic acid decarboxylase → ↓ GABA synthesis → excitotoxic seizures. Benzodiazepines enhance GABA at GABA-A receptors but cannot work if GABA production is severely impaired. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) restores GABA synthesis and terminates seizures. Dose: 5g IV empirically (or gram-for-gram the estimated INH dose). Phenytoin (A) is not effective for INH seizures and is actually not first-line for any toxin-induced seizures. NaHCO₃ (C) and NAC (D) target different toxins. Magnesium (E) is for eclampsia or torsades.
Question 15
A cyanide-poisoned patient from a house fire is brought to the ED in coma with severe lactic acidosis (lactate 18 mmol/L). 100% O₂ has been started. Which antidote is the current first-line treatment for cyanide poisoning in the US?
A. Methylene blue
B. Dimercaprol (BAL)
C. Hydroxocobalamin
D. Sodium thiosulfate alone
E. Deferoxamine
Hydroxocobalamin (Cyanokit) is the current first-line antidote for cyanide poisoning in the US. It directly binds cyanide (CN⁻) in a 1:1 molar ratio to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12), which is then excreted renally. Advantages: safe in fire victims who may also have CO poisoning (unlike the older nitrite-based regimen which induces methemoglobinemia — harmful in CO-poisoned patients). The older regimen (sodium nitrite + sodium thiosulfate) works by: nitrite → induces methemoglobinemia (Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺) → CN⁻ preferentially binds methemoglobin; thiosulfate → donates sulfur to rhodanese enzyme → converts CN⁻ to thiocyanate (non-toxic, excreted). Methylene blue (A) treats methemoglobinemia, not cyanide. Deferoxamine (E) chelates iron.
LO 12 — Toxidromes (Q16–Q18)
Question 16
A 24-year-old man is brought to the ED by friends after taking "something at a rave." Exam: HR 162, BP 188/110, temp 39.8°C, pupils 7mm bilaterally (mydriasis), diaphoretic skin, hyperactive bowel sounds, and severe agitation requiring restraints. Which toxidrome is most consistent with this presentation, and what drug class is most likely responsible?
A. Anticholinergic toxidrome — antihistamine
B. Sympathomimetic toxidrome — cocaine or amphetamines
C. Cholinergic toxidrome — organophosphate
D. Serotonin syndrome — SSRI + MAOI
E. Narcotic toxidrome — opioid
Key discriminating features here: diaphoresis (wet skin) and hyperactive bowel sounds point to sympathomimetic toxidrome rather than anticholinergic (which shares tachycardia, hyperthermia, mydriasis, and agitation, but has dry skin and decreased bowel sounds). Cocaine and amphetamines (including MDMA/ecstasy) are common at raves. Treatment: benzodiazepines are first-line for agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine OD (risk of unopposed alpha → severe vasoconstriction and rebound HTN). Note: Serotonin syndrome (D) is similar but characteristically includes hyperreflexia and clonus which are not mentioned here.
Question 17
A patient is found unresponsive. Exam: HR 44, RR 4, BP 78/40, temperature 35.2°C, pupils 1–2 mm (pinpoint), skin cool and pale. Which of the following single interventions is most likely to rapidly reverse this clinical picture?
A. Atropine 1mg IV
B. Naloxone 0.4–2mg IV
C. Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV
D. Flumazenil 0.2mg IV
E. Physostigmine 2mg IV
Classic opioid triad: AMS + miosis (pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression. Bradycardia and hypothermia are also consistent. Naloxone (competitive μ-opioid antagonist) is the antidote. The dose range 0.4–2 mg is reasonable; in opioid-naive patients or for diagnostic purposes, 0.4 mg can be used; in severe overdose, 2 mg or more may be needed. If effective, pupils will dilate and respiratory rate improves within 1–2 minutes. Remember: naloxone's half-life is shorter than most opioids — re-sedation can occur; monitor closely and repeat or infuse as needed. Atropine (A) treats bradycardia from AV block (cholinergic/digoxin) but not opioids. NaHCO₃ (C) treats TCA wide QRS. Flumazenil (D) reverses benzodiazepines but NOT miosis. Physostigmine (E) would worsen bradycardia/bradypnea.
Question 18
A patient presents with the following constellation: bradycardia, excessive lacrimation and salivation, profuse sweating, urinary incontinence, small pupils, bronchospasm with audible wheezing, and muscle fasciculations. She was recently gardening. Which of the following best explains why pralidoxime (2-PAM) must be administered soon after atropine, rather than at a later time?
A. Pralidoxime potentiates the effect of atropine at muscarinic receptors
B. Delayed administration risks "aging" — irreversible bonding of organophosphate to acetylcholinesterase
C. Pralidoxime is only effective in the presence of ongoing muscarinic stimulation
D. Pralidoxime inhibits organophosphate absorption from the gut
E. Atropine metabolism requires pralidoxime as a cofactor
This is organophosphate poisoning (cholinergic toxidrome from gardening pesticide exposure). Organophosphates initially form a reversible covalent bond with the serine residue in acetylcholinesterase's active site. Over time — the speed depends on the specific organophosphate — this bond "ages" (undergoes dealkylation) into an irreversible form that pralidoxime cannot cleave. Once aging occurs, acetylcholinesterase is permanently inactivated and must be replaced by new enzyme synthesis (days). Pralidoxime works by nucleophilically attacking the phosphorylated enzyme, regenerating active acetylcholinesterase — but only before aging. Therefore, pralidoxime must be given early. Note: pralidoxime is typically not given for carbamate poisoning because carbamate-cholinesterase bonds are spontaneously reversible.