Lecture 21: Poisoning Conference & Cases

HoyaDocs — GI Block | USMLE Step 1 Preparation

Lecture 21 — Overview

Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block

Page Summaries

📊 Epidemiology & Recognition
Covers LOs 1–5
NPDS data · fatal substances · history-taking · alert presentations · lab workup
Practice Qs: 1–6
🧹 Management Principles
Covers LOs 6–7
Decontamination methods · enhanced elimination · activated charcoal
Practice Qs: 7–9
⏱️ Symptoms, Timing & Antidotes
Covers LOs 8–11
Symptoms by agent · time course · antidotes · supportive care
Practice Qs: 10–15
🔮 Toxidromes
Covers LO 12
Anticholinergic · cholinergic · sympathomimetic · narcotic
Practice Qs: 16–18

Official Learning Objectives Map

1 Identify the National Poison Data System (NPDS) as the primary source of epidemiologic data on poisoning in the US Epidemiology ▼
2 List the substances with the greatest number of fatalities Fatalities ▼
3 Take a focused history in a poisoning patient History ▼
4 Recognize clinical presentations that should raise alert for toxin exposure Alert ▼
Practice Questions
5 Select appropriate laboratory studies in a poisoning patient Labs ▼
6 Describe the different methods of decontamination Decontamination ▼
7 Describe methods of enhanced elimination of toxins Elimination ▼
8 List the characteristic symptoms and signs associated with poisoning by various agents Symptoms ▼
9 Recognize that some toxins cause delayed toxicity, and identify which ones Timing ▼
10 Describe the role of antidotes in the treatment of poisoning Antidotes ▼
11 Describe the role of supportive care in the treatment of poisoning Supportive Care ▼
Practice Questions
Covered broadly across Qs
12 Describe the major toxidromes Toxidromes ▼
📋 6 Clinical Cases (Must Know)
Case 1: APAP overdose — nomogram, NAC
Case 2: Silica gel — nontoxic desiccant
Case 3: NaOH caustic — dilute, no emesis, endoscopy
Case 4: Opioid + glyburide — naloxone + delayed hypoglycemia
Case 5: Hydrocarbon — no emesis (aspiration risk)
Case 6: CO — family dead in bed, 100% O₂

LO 1 — NPDS & Epidemiology

National Poison Data System · Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 1: Identify the National Poison Data System (NPDS) as the primary source of epidemiologic data on poisoning in the US

▼ What Is the NPDS?

The National Poison Data System (NPDS) is maintained by the American Association of Poison Control Centers (AAPCC). It is the primary source of epidemiologic data on poisoning in the United States, compiling real-time reports from all 55 US poison control centers.

  • Data are reported when people call poison control (1-800-222-1222)
  • Published annually in the journal Clinical Toxicology
  • Tracks exposures, outcomes, demographics, and substances involved
  • Underestimates true incidence — not all poisonings trigger a call
⭐ Step 1 High-Yield:
  • NPDS = national surveillance database for US poisoning statistics
  • Data source = poison control center calls → underrepresents fatal/severe cases (those go directly to ER)
  • Poison Control hotline: 1-800-222-1222 (24/7)

▼ 2022 NPDS Exposure Data

📊 Key 2022 Numbers

Metric2022 Value
Total human exposures2,064,875
Exposures in children ≤5 years~40%
Total fatalities1,491
#1 exposure categoryAnalgesics (11.5%)
#2 exposure categoryCleaning substances (7.2%)
#3 exposure categoryAntidepressants (5.6%)

Key contrast: most exposures are accidental and occur in young children; most fatalities are in adults and are intentional (self-harm).

▼ Fatality Categories

RankSubstance Category2022 Deaths
1Sedative/hypnotics (benzodiazepines, barbiturates)299
2Acetaminophen alone270
3Opioids244
4Alcohols (ethanol, methanol, isopropanol, EG)231
5Cardiovascular drugs~150
6Antidepressants~130

▼ Exposure Patterns

👶 Pediatric (≤5 yr)
  • ~40% of all exposures
  • Usually unintentional/exploratory
  • Low fatality rate (child-resistant packaging)
  • Common: medications left out, cleaning products
👤 Adult
  • Minority of exposures but majority of fatalities
  • Intentional (self-harm) → highest case fatality rate
  • Most common: medications (prescription + OTC)
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 1
  • NPDS = primary US poisoning epidemiology source (AAPCC, poison control call data)
  • Over 2 million exposures/year; ~40% in children ≤5; most fatal cases in adults
  • Top fatality categories: sedative/hypnotics → APAP → opioids → alcohols
  • Top exposure categories: analgesics → cleaning substances → antidepressants

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 1, Question 1

A toxicology researcher wants to determine which pharmaceutical agents are most commonly involved in poisoning exposures in US children under 5 years old. What is the most appropriate data source, and what is a key limitation of that source?

Consider: What national database tracks poisoning exposure data? How are cases captured in this system?

✓ Answer: National Poison Data System (NPDS); key limitation is underreporting

The NPDS, maintained by the AAPCC, aggregates real-time data from all 55 US poison control centers (1-800-222-1222). A critical limitation is that it only captures cases where someone calls poison control — it misses many fatal cases (which go directly to emergency services) and unrecognized exposures. This means NPDS underestimates the true burden of poisoning, especially fatalities.

LO 2 — Fatal Substances

Substances with Greatest Fatalities · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 2: List the substances with the greatest number of fatalities

▼ Fatality Rankings (NPDS 2022)

The following substances are associated with the most deaths reported to NPDS. Understanding why each is fatal is more important than memorizing exact numbers.

SubstanceDeaths (2022)Mechanism of DeathKey Feature
Sedative/hypnotics (benzos, barbiturates)299CNS + respiratory depressionOften combined with other CNS depressants
APAP alone270Hepatic necrosis → liver failureDelayed — silent for 24h then fulminant
Opioids244Respiratory depressionTriad: AMS + miosis + ↓ respirations
Alcohols231CNS depression; metabolic acidosis (methanol, EG)Ethanol vs. toxic alcohols (methanol/EG) differ significantly
Cardiovascular drugs~150Arrhythmia, cardiac depressionDigoxin, CCBs, beta-blockers
Antidepressants~130TCAs → wide QRS, seizures; SSRIs → serotonin syndromeTCAs most dangerous
⭐ HY Mnemonic — Top 4 Killers: "SOAP"
  • Sedatives/hypnotics (#1)
  • Opioids (#3)
  • Acetaminophen (#2)
  • Poisons/alcohols (#4)

▼ Clinical Cases

These 6 cases illustrate key management principles. Know each scenario cold.

▼Case 1 — Acetaminophen Overdose

Young woman presents after intentional APAP ingestion. Initially asymptomatic (N/V may occur early).

  • Key tool: Rumack-Matthew nomogram — plots serum APAP level vs. time post-ingestion to predict hepatotoxicity risk
  • Treatment: N-acetylcysteine (NAC) — most effective if started within 8–10h; can still help up to 24h+
  • Mechanism of toxicity: NAPQI (toxic metabolite) accumulates when glutathione depleted → centrilobular necrosis
  • NAC mechanism: replenishes glutathione + directly detoxifies NAPQI
▼Case 2 — Silica Gel

Child ingested silica gel desiccant packets (the "Do Not Eat" packs in shoe boxes, electronics).

  • Silica gel is NONTOXIC — despite the alarming label, it is an inert desiccant
  • May cause mild GI irritation (nausea, vomiting) — treat symptomatically
  • No decontamination needed
  • Reassure parents and monitor for GI symptoms only
▼Case 3 — NaOH (Caustic Alkali Ingestion)

Patient ingested sodium hydroxide (lye, drain cleaner). Caustic alkaline ingestion.

  • Mechanism: liquefactive necrosis of esophagus and stomach (worse than acid — penetrates deeper)
  • DO: Dilute with small amounts of water or milk (immediately)
  • DO: Endoscopy at 12–24 hours to assess esophageal/gastric damage
  • DO NOT: Induce emesis — re-exposure of mucosa causes more damage
  • DO NOT: Pass NG tube blindly — risk of perforation
  • DO NOT: Neutralize (acid + base = exothermic reaction)
▼Case 4 — Polysubstance OD: Opioid + Sulfonylurea

Patient took opioids (heroin or prescription) plus glyburide (sulfonylurea). Classic "double danger" scenario.

  • Acute: Naloxone for opioid-induced respiratory depression (may need continuous infusion — opioid half-life > naloxone half-life)
  • Delayed danger: Glyburide causes delayed hypoglycemia — onset can be hours later, even after patient appears to improve
  • Monitor blood glucose serially for 12–24h
  • Treat hypoglycemia: IV dextrose; octreotide (suppresses insulin release) for refractory cases
▼Case 5 — Hydrocarbon Ingestion

Child ingested petroleum distillate (gasoline, mineral spirits, lighter fluid).

  • Primary risk: aspiration pneumonitis — hydrocarbons are aspirated easily due to low viscosity and surface tension
  • DO NOT: Induce emesis — dramatically increases aspiration risk
  • DO NOT: Gastric lavage — same aspiration risk
  • DO: Supportive care; respiratory monitoring; chest X-ray if symptomatic
  • GI absorption of hydrocarbons is actually minimal — aspiration is the real threat
▼Case 6 — Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

Family found unresponsive in their home in winter. Earlier had "flu-like symptoms" but no fever.

  • Classic scenario: Multiple family members (+ pets) ill simultaneously → think CO from furnace/generator
  • Mechanism: CO binds hemoglobin with 200–250× greater affinity than O₂ → carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) → ↓ O₂ carrying capacity + leftward shift of O₂–Hb dissociation curve
  • Also inhibits cytochrome c oxidase → cellular asphyxiation
  • Treatment: Remove from source; 100% O₂ (non-rebreather mask) → reduces COHb half-life from 4–5h → 60–90 min
  • Hyperbaric O₂ for: severe toxicity, loss of consciousness, pregnant, neurological symptoms

▼ Special Topic: Carbon Monoxide Poisoning

🔑 CO Sources

Any source of incomplete combustion: car exhaust (garage), gas furnaces/heaters, gas generators, house fires, gas stoves in enclosed spaces.

🔑 Clinical Features by Severity

SeverityCOHb LevelSymptoms
Mild10–20%Headache, nausea, malaise — "flu without fever"
Moderate20–40%Severe headache, dizziness, confusion, chest pain
Severe>40%Coma, seizures, cardiovascular collapse, death
⭐ Special Populations in CO:
  • Pregnant: fetal hemoglobin has higher CO affinity → fetus more susceptible; lower threshold for hyperbaric O₂
  • Children: higher metabolic rate → symptoms appear faster
  • Cardiac patients: myocardial ischemia can occur at lower COHb levels

▼ Special Topic: Lead Poisoning

🔑 Sources of Lead Exposure

  • Lead-based paint in homes built before 1978 (most common pediatric source)
  • Occupational: battery manufacturing, smelting, plumbing
  • Folk medicines (some Hispanic, Asian, and Middle Eastern remedies)
  • Imported toys, pottery with lead-glazed ceramics
  • Contaminated water (lead pipes)

🔑 Mechanism of Toxicity

  • Inhibits δ-ALA dehydratase and ferrochelatase → impaired heme synthesis → microcytic anemia with basophilic stippling
  • Deposits in bone (X-ray: lead lines at metaphyses)
  • Neurological: inhibits GABA → excitotoxicity; demyelination
  • Renal: Fanconi syndrome (proximal tubule damage)

🔑 Clinical Severity Spectrum

Blood Lead LevelClinical Findings
>70 mcg/dLEncephalopathy, foot drop/wrist drop (motor neuropathy)
45–70 mcg/dLAbdominal colic, constipation, anemia
25–44 mcg/dLHyperirritability, behavior changes, fatigue
<25 mcg/dLAsymptomatic → subclinical cognitive impairment, ↓ IQ

Note: no "safe" blood lead level in children — any elevation is associated with neurodevelopmental effects.

🔑 Chelation Therapy

AgentRouteNotes
Succimer (DMSA)OralFirst-line for mild-moderate; outpatient use
CaNa₂EDTAIV or IMModerate-severe; can mobilize lead to brain if given alone (give with BAL)
BAL (dimercaprol)IM in peanut oilSevere cases + encephalopathy; given with EDTA; avoid in peanut allergy
PenicillamineOralLess commonly used; adjunct
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — Lead Poisoning
  • Source: pre-1978 paint chips (children); occupational exposure (adults)
  • Inhibits heme synthesis enzymes → microcytic anemia + basophilic stippling
  • Lead lines on knee/wrist X-rays; foot drop/wrist drop at high levels
  • Diagnosis: blood lead level; CBC with peripheral smear
  • Treatment: succimer (mild-mod, oral); BAL + EDTA (severe/encephalopathy)

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 2, Question 1

A 4-year-old is brought in after swallowing hydrocarbon-based furniture polish. His mother wants to make him vomit "to get it out." Why is this the wrong approach, and what should you do instead?

Consider: What is the primary route of injury from hydrocarbon ingestion? What happens if the hydrocarbon contacts the airway?

✓ Answer: Hydrocarbon ingestion — do NOT induce emesis; supportive care only

Hydrocarbons cause minimal GI toxicity. Their main danger is aspiration pneumonitis. These compounds have low viscosity and surface tension, making aspiration into the bronchial tree extremely easy. Inducing emesis forces the hydrocarbon back through the pharynx and dramatically increases aspiration risk. Similarly, gastric lavage is contraindicated. Management is supportive: observe for respiratory symptoms, O₂ if needed, and chest X-ray if coughing or respiratory distress develops.

LO 3 — History-Taking

Focused Poisoning History · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 3: Take a focused history in a poisoning patient

▼ Key History Questions

🧠 Mnemonic: "What WARS?" — Poisoning History Framework
▼
  • What — What agent was involved?
  • Amount — How much was taken?
  • Route — How was it taken? (ingestion, inhalation, skin, eyes, injection)
  • Symptoms — What symptoms are present now? What was done at home?

Plus: When (time since exposure) and Who (patient weight, age for dosing/risk assessment)

QuestionWhy It Matters
What agent?Determines specific management, antidote availability
How much?Dose determines toxicity (esp. weight-based for children)
When?Time post-ingestion guides decontamination window and prognosis (e.g., APAP nomogram requires time)
What route?Ingestion vs. inhalation vs. skin affects management approach
Current symptoms?Guides urgency and organ system involvement
Prior treatment?Identifies if patient/family already attempted decontamination (e.g., ipecac at home)
Patient age/weight?Required for dosing activated charcoal, antidotes, and risk assessment
Intent?Intentional overdose → psychiatric evaluation, higher risk of additional ingestions

▼ Information Sources

  • Patient (if conscious and cooperative) — most direct but may downplay intentional overdose
  • Family/friends/bystanders — often most reliable for pediatric ingestions
  • Medication bottles — note what's prescribed vs. what's present (pill count)
  • Scene investigation — EMS description of environment (pill bottles, chemicals, CO detector alarm)
  • Medical records — prior prescriptions, previous OD attempts
  • Pharmacy — can confirm fill dates and quantities

▼ Poison Control Center

1-800-222-1222
US Poison Control Centers — 24/7
  • Available 24/7; free service; expert toxicologists available
  • Can provide real-time management guidance (decontamination, antidote dosing)
  • Should be called early in any poisoning case — even from the ER
  • They also advise on nontoxic exposures (like silica gel) — prevents unnecessary ER visits
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 3
  • Key history: What, How much, When, Route, Symptoms, Prior treatment, Weight/age
  • Time of ingestion is critical for APAP nomogram and activated charcoal window
  • Always assess intent — intentional OD requires psychiatric evaluation and broader tox screen
  • Call Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) early — expert guidance available 24/7

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 3, Question 1

A 22-year-old woman is brought to the ED after her roommate found empty pill bottles. She says she "just took a few Tylenol." She appears well and has no complaints. What are the two most important pieces of information to immediately obtain, and why?

Consider: Which agent has delayed and silent toxicity? What determines severity and guides treatment decisions?

✓ Answer: Time of ingestion + APAP serum level

Acetaminophen toxicity is clinically silent for the first 24 hours. The Rumack-Matthew nomogram requires both a serum APAP level and the time post-ingestion to determine if treatment with NAC is indicated. Without knowing when she took the pills, the level cannot be properly interpreted. Additionally, because patients with intentional OD frequently understate what they took, an APAP level should be obtained in all intentional overdoses regardless of stated ingestion.

LO 4 — Alert Presentations

When to Suspect Toxin Exposure · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 4: Recognize clinical presentations that should raise alert for toxin exposure

▼ Red Flag Presentations

The following presentations should always prompt consideration of toxic etiology, even without a known history of exposure:

🧠 Neurological
  • Altered mental status (unexplained)
  • Seizures (especially in previously healthy adult)
  • Coma without head trauma
  • Acute psychosis
❤️ Cardiovascular
  • Unexplained bradycardia or tachyarrhythmia
  • Widened QRS on EKG
  • QT prolongation
  • Refractory hypotension
⚗️ Metabolic
  • Unexplained anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • Severe hypoglycemia
  • Methemoglobinemia (cyanosis unresponsive to O₂)
👶 Pediatric Context
  • Any sudden illness in a previously healthy child
  • Multi-family-member illness simultaneously
  • Seasonal (CO from winter heating)

▼ Classic Alert Scenarios

ScenarioThink of
Flu-like illness in winter without fever, multiple family members sickCarbon monoxide from heating system
Young healthy adult with unexplained wide-complex arrhythmiaTCA overdose (or digoxin toxicity)
Child with "AMS" after visiting grandparentsAccidental ingestion of cardiac medications (digoxin, CCBs, beta-blockers)
Anion gap metabolic acidosis + visual changesMethanol or ethylene glycol (antifreeze)
Patient with profound miosis + respiratory depression + AMSOpioid overdose
New seizures in adult on isoniazid for TBINH toxicity (pyridoxine depletion)
Elevated LFTs, RUQ pain, 48–72h after "minor" overdoseAPAP hepatotoxicity
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 4
  • Always consider toxin in: unexplained AMS, anion gap acidosis, arrhythmia, seizure, or pediatric sudden illness
  • Multiple family members sick simultaneously → CO poisoning until proven otherwise
  • Wide QRS + hemodynamic instability → TCA overdose (bicarb therapy)
  • Miosis + respiratory depression + AMS = opioid triad

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 4, Question 1

In December, a family of four presents to the ED: two adults with severe headaches and confusion, and two children with nausea. The neighbor found them unresponsive. All improved after leaving the house. Their family dog also seems lethargic. What is the diagnosis, and what single diagnostic test confirms it?

Consider: What toxin affects an entire household including pets? What is the appropriate lab test (and why not standard pulse ox)?

✓ Answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning; confirmed by co-oximetry (ABG with carboxyhemoglobin level)

The classic presentation: multiple household members (including pets) with flu-like illness without fever during winter = CO poisoning from defective heating system until proven otherwise. Standard pulse oximetry is unreliable because it cannot distinguish oxyhemoglobin from carboxyhemoglobin — both read as "saturated." Co-oximetry on an arterial blood gas measures COHb directly. Treatment: 100% O₂ via non-rebreather mask; consider hyperbaric O₂ for loss of consciousness or severe toxicity.

LO 5 — Laboratory Studies

Selecting Appropriate Labs in Poisoning · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 5: Select appropriate laboratory studies in a poisoning patient

▼ Universal Labs (Obtain in All Significant Poisonings)

TestWhy?
BMP (Na, K, Cl, HCO₃, BUN, Cr, glucose)Anion gap calculation; renal function; electrolytes; glucose
LFTs + coagulation (PT/INR)Hepatotoxicity (APAP); warfarin OD; liver failure
CBCAnemia (lead, methemoglobin); leukocytosis (infection vs. toxin)
APAP levelAlways in intentional OD — delayed hepatotoxicity is silent
Salicylate levelAlways in intentional OD — can be concurrent ingestion
EKGWide QRS (TCA), QT prolongation (antipsychotics, antiarrhythmics), bradycardia (beta-blockers, digoxin)
ABG with co-oximetryCO poisoning (COHb); methemoglobinemia; acid-base status
Urine drug screen (UDS)Broad screen for common drugs of abuse; has limitations (see below)

▼ Targeted / Specific Labs

Clinical ScenarioOrder This
Suspected digoxin toxicitySerum digoxin level (check timing — level unreliable within 6h of dose)
Suspected lithium toxicitySerum lithium level
Suspected iron ODSerum iron + TIBC; check at 4–6h post-ingestion
Cyanosis unresponsive to O₂Methemoglobin level (co-oximetry)
Anion gap + visual changesMethanol / ethylene glycol levels; osmol gap
Pediatric hypoglycemiaBlood glucose; C-peptide/insulin ratio (sulfonylurea OD)
Suspected lead poisoningBlood lead level (BLL) + CBC + free erythrocyte protoporphyrin
⭐ Osmol Gap = Key Indicator for Toxic Alcohols:
  • Calculated osmolality = 2[Na] + [glucose]/18 + [BUN]/2.8
  • Osmol gap = measured − calculated osmolality (normal <10)
  • Elevated osmol gap + anion gap metabolic acidosis → methanol or ethylene glycol until proven otherwise

▼ EKG in Poisoning

EKG FindingThink ofTreatment
Wide QRS (>120 ms)TCA overdose; sodium channel blockers (flecainide, quinidine)Sodium bicarbonate (alkalinizes, narrows QRS)
QT prolongationAntipsychotics, methadone, cisapride, Class IA/III antiarrhythmicsCorrect electrolytes; avoid further QT-prolonging agents; Mg²⁺ for torsades
Bradycardia + AV blockDigoxin, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockersSpecific antidotes (Dig-Fab, glucagon, calcium)
Bidirectional VTDigoxin toxicity (classic), also aconitineDigoxin-specific Fab antibodies
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 5
  • APAP + salicylate levels in ALL intentional overdoses (silent killers)
  • EKG is essential — wide QRS → TCA; QT prolongation → antipsychotics/antiarrhythmics; bradycardia → dig/CCB/beta-blocker
  • Standard pulse ox is unreliable in CO poisoning — need co-oximetry ABG
  • Urine drug screen misses many toxins; a negative result does NOT rule out poisoning
  • Osmol gap + anion gap = toxic alcohol (methanol, ethylene glycol) until proven otherwise

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 5, Question 1

A 35-year-old man is brought in obtunded after a party. His vitals show HR 42, BP 80/50. His EKG shows sinus bradycardia with a PR interval of 0.32 s and wide QRS of 160 ms. Urine drug screen is negative. What two drug classes should be highest on your differential, and what is the critical lab/test that will guide management of the wide QRS?

Consider: What causes bradycardia with wide QRS? How does a negative UDS affect your thinking?

✓ Answer: TCA overdose + sodium channel blocker; sodium bicarbonate therapy guided by QRS width

A negative UDS does NOT rule out TCA or other sodium channel blocker toxicity — these are not detected on standard immunoassay urine screens. Bradycardia with wide QRS suggests sodium channel blockade (TCA, quinidine, flecainide). Digoxin can cause bradycardia but produces narrow QRS. Management of TCA-associated wide QRS: sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV bolus) — alkalinization and sodium loading both help reverse the sodium channel blockade, narrowing the QRS. Monitor serial EKGs and serum pH.

LO 6 — Decontamination

Methods of Decontamination · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 6: Describe the different methods of decontamination

▼ External Decontamination

👁️ Ocular Exposure

  • Immediate copious irrigation with water or saline
  • Duration: ≥15 minutes (acid) — for alkali exposures, irrigate until pH normalizes (may need 30–60 min)
  • Remove contact lenses before irrigating
  • Ophthalmology consult if significant chemical injury

🫁 Inhalation Exposure

  • Remove from source immediately (rescuer must ensure personal protection first)
  • Fresh air / supplemental O₂
  • Support airway and respiration as needed

🖐️ Skin/Dermal Exposure

  • Remove all contaminated clothing and jewelry immediately
  • Copious water irrigation for ≥15 minutes
  • Do not scrub — gentle lavage
  • Healthcare workers must use appropriate PPE

▼ GI Decontamination Overview

MethodIndicationNotes
Activated charcoalMost oral ingestions within 1–2hFirst-line; see detailed section below
Whole bowel irrigation (WBI)Iron, lead, lithium, SR/ER drugs, drug packets (body packers)PEG-ELS solution (GoLytely) via NGT until clear rectal effluent
Gastric lavageRarely used; massive ingestion within 1h, intubated patientHigh risk: aspiration, esophageal injury; benefits rarely outweigh risks
Dilution (water/milk)Caustic ingestions (acids/alkalis)Small volume (120–240 mL); do NOT neutralize
IpecacOBSOLETENo longer recommended; removed from guidelines; delays charcoal administration

▼ Activated Charcoal — Key Details

Activated charcoal (AC) is the primary method of GI decontamination for most oral ingestions. It works by adsorbing (binding) the toxin in the GI tract, preventing absorption.

  • Dose: 1 g/kg (adults: typically 50–100g)
  • Window: Most effective within 1 hour of ingestion; benefit declines significantly after 2h
  • Administration: Oral or via NGT (if patient cannot swallow)

🔑 Charcoal Does NOT Work For:

  • Metals: iron, lead, lithium (not adsorbed by charcoal)
  • Alcohols: ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol
  • Caustics: acids, alkalis (charcoal unhelpful; may obscure endoscopy)
  • Hydrocarbons: contraindicated (emesis risk during administration)
  • Cyanide (poorly adsorbed; also moves too fast)

🔑 Contraindications to Activated Charcoal:

  • Unprotected airway (AMS without intubation → aspiration risk)
  • Caustic ingestion (interferes with endoscopy, no benefit)
  • Hydrocarbon ingestion
  • Bowel obstruction or perforation
🧠 Mnemonic: Charcoal doesn't work for "LAME Ca"
▼
  • Lithium
  • Alcohols (ethanol, methanol, EG)
  • Metals (iron, lead)
  • Electrolytes (Na, K, Mg)
  • Caustics

▼ When NOT to Induce Vomiting / No Emesis Rule

🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 6
  • External: eyes/skin = 15+ min water irrigation; inhalation = fresh air
  • Activated charcoal: first-line GI decontamination; best within 1h; NOT for metals, alcohols, caustics, hydrocarbons
  • No emesis for: caustics, hydrocarbons, AMS, seizure risk
  • Ipecac = obsolete; WBI for iron/lead/SR drugs/body packers
  • Caustic ingestion: dilute with water/milk; do NOT neutralize; endoscopy at 12–24h

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 6, Question 1

A 3-year-old ingested multiple iron tablets (children's vitamins) 90 minutes ago. You consider activated charcoal. Explain whether this is appropriate and what alternative decontamination strategy should be used.

Consider: Does charcoal adsorb iron? What GI decontamination method specifically targets heavy metals and large drug loads?

✓ Answer: Charcoal is NOT appropriate; use whole bowel irrigation

Activated charcoal does not adsorb iron (or other metals — lead, lithium). The charcoal mesh does not bind metal ions. For iron ingestion, the preferred GI decontamination is whole bowel irrigation (WBI) with polyethylene glycol-electrolyte lavage solution (GoLytely/Miralax) — given orally or via NGT until rectal effluent runs clear. WBI physically flushes tablets through the GI tract before they can be absorbed. Abdominal X-ray can confirm tablet location and guide management.

LO 7 — Enhanced Elimination

Methods to Enhance Toxin Elimination · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 7: Describe methods of enhanced elimination of toxins

▼ Urinary Alkalinization

Alkalinizing the urine (target urine pH 7.5–8.0) via IV sodium bicarbonate traps ionized drug in the tubule, preventing reabsorption → increased renal elimination.

Works for weakly acidic drugs (ionize in alkaline pH → cannot cross tubular epithelium → excreted):

  • Salicylates (aspirin OD) — classic indication
  • Phenobarbital
  • Methotrexate
  • Chlorpropamide
⭐ Principle: Ion Trapping
  • Weak acid: ASA (pKa ~3.5) — in alkaline urine, drug is ionized → cannot cross lipid membrane → stays in urine → excreted
  • Also: NaHCO₃ corrects acidosis from salicylate poisoning, reducing CNS penetration

▼ Hemodialysis (HD)

Hemodialysis directly removes toxin from blood. Most effective for toxins that are:

  • Small molecular weight
  • Low volume of distribution (stay in blood, not sequestered in tissues)
  • Low protein binding
  • Water-soluble
🧠 Mnemonic: Toxins Removed by Hemodialysis — "SLIME"
▼
  • Salicylates (severe ASA OD)
  • Lithium
  • Isopropanol (isopropyl alcohol)
  • Methanol / Metformin (severe cases)
  • Ethylene glycol

▼ Multiple-Dose Activated Charcoal (MDAC)

Repeat doses of AC can interrupt enterohepatic recirculation and create a "gut dialysis" — drawing drug from blood back into the GI lumen for elimination.

Indicated for:

  • Carbamazepine
  • Phenobarbital
  • Theophylline
  • Aspirin (salicylates)
  • Dapsone, quinine
⭐ Mnemonic: "CPSA" for MDAC indications
  • Carbamazepine
  • Phenobarbital
  • Salicylates
  • Aminophylline/theophylline

▼ Other Enhanced Elimination Methods

MethodToxinsNotes
HemoperfusionTheophylline, some barbiturates, paraquatBlood passed over charcoal or resin column; removes highly protein-bound drugs that HD cannot
Continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)Lithium (when HD not tolerated)Slower but continuous; good for hemodynamically unstable patients
Lipid emulsion therapyLocal anesthetic toxicity (bupivacaine), lipophilic drugs"Lipid sink" — large lipid bolus sequesters lipophilic drug out of circulation
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 7
  • Urinary alkalinization (NaHCO₃): salicylates, phenobarbital — ion trapping in alkaline urine
  • Hemodialysis — SLIME: Salicylates, Lithium, Isopropanol, Methanol/Metformin, Ethylene glycol
  • MDAC: carbamazepine, phenobarbital, theophylline, aspirin — creates "gut dialysis"
  • Digoxin is NOT removed by HD (large Vd + tissue binding); use Dig-Fab

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 7, Question 1

A patient presents with severe salicylate toxicity (serum level 90 mg/dL), with altered mental status, metabolic acidosis, and respiratory alkalosis. What two enhanced elimination strategies are indicated, and what must be monitored carefully?

Consider: What does alkaline urine do to a weak acid? When does salicylate OD require HD?

✓ Answer: Urinary alkalinization AND hemodialysis; monitor serum potassium and glucose

For severe salicylate toxicity (level >80–100 mg/dL, AMS, or renal failure), hemodialysis is indicated. Concurrently, urinary alkalinization (IV NaHCO₃, target urine pH 7.5–8) promotes ion trapping of salicylate in the tubule, increasing renal elimination. Critical monitoring: (1) Serum potassium — bicarbonate infusion can cause hypokalemia, and hypokalemia will actually prevent urine alkalinization (tubule secretes H⁺ in exchange for K⁺); (2) Glucose — salicylate depletes CNS glucose even with normal serum glucose; maintain high-normal glucose.

LO 8 — Symptoms by Agent

Characteristic Presentations of Specific Toxins · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 8: List the characteristic symptoms and signs associated with poisoning by various agents

▼ Opioids

MiosisAMS/SedationRespiratory DepressionBradycardiaHypotension

Classic triad: Altered mental status + miosis (pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression

  • Agents: heroin, morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl, methadone, tramadol
  • Mechanism: μ-opioid receptor agonism in CNS → CNS depression, brainstem respiratory center suppression
  • Antidote: naloxone (competitive antagonist)
  • Caution: naloxone half-life (30–90 min) < most opioids → may need repeat dosing or continuous infusion
  • Methadone has very long t½ — monitor for recurrent respiratory depression

▼ Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs)

Wide QRSHypotensionSeizuresAnticholinergic featuresQT prolongation

TCAs are among the most dangerous agents in intentional OD — rapid deterioration from normal to cardiac arrest within minutes.

Three receptor effects:

  • Sodium channel blockade: Wide QRS (>120 ms), R wave in aVR >3mm → ventricular arrhythmias
  • Alpha-1 blockade: Hypotension, vasodilation
  • Anticholinergic effects: Tachycardia, dry mouth, urinary retention, hyperthermia, AMS
  • Also: GABA-A antagonism → seizures

Treatment: Sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV) narrows QRS and stabilizes rhythm. Goal serum pH 7.45–7.55. Avoid flumazenil (lowers seizure threshold) and physostigmine.

▼ Salicylates (Aspirin)

TinnitusHyperpneaResp Alkalosis → Met AcidosisHyperthermiaAMS
  • Early: Tinnitus, nausea/vomiting, hyperpnea (direct respiratory center stimulation) → respiratory alkalosis
  • Late: Uncoupled oxidative phosphorylation → metabolic acidosis, hyperthermia, diaphoresis
  • Severe: AMS, pulmonary edema, CNS salicylate toxicity (occurs even with normal serum level if CNS acidotic)
  • Classic lab: mixed respiratory alkalosis + metabolic acidosis
  • Treatment: urinary alkalinization, hydration, HD if severe

▼ Acetaminophen (APAP)

Silent PhaseHepatotoxicityRUQ PainElevated LFTsLiver Failure

APAP toxicity classically progresses through 4 phases:

PhaseTimeFeatures
I0–24hAsymptomatic or mild N/V — "silent phase"
II24–72hRUQ pain, rising LFTs (AST/ALT >1000), decreased urine output
III72–96hPeak hepatotoxicity — AST/ALT in tens of thousands, coagulopathy, jaundice, AMS, renal failure
IV4 days–2 weeksRecovery (if survives) or death from liver failure

Mechanism: NAPQI (N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine) — toxic metabolite from CYP2E1. Normally detoxified by glutathione; overwhelms stores in OD → centrilobular hepatic necrosis

Treatment: NAC (N-acetylcysteine) — replenishes glutathione. Start within 8–10h for maximum efficacy; still beneficial up to 24h+.

▼ Carbon Monoxide

Flu Without FeverHeadacheAMSCOHb elevatedNormal SpO₂ (misleading)
  • Headache, nausea, malaise — classic "flu without fever"
  • Multiple household members + pets affected simultaneously
  • Confusion, syncope in moderate exposure; coma/seizures/death in severe
  • Pulse ox unreliable — SpO₂ falsely normal; need co-oximetry
  • Cherry red skin — late finding, <30% of patients, not reliable

▼ Iron Poisoning

GI HemorrhageApparent RecoveryHepatic FailureMetabolic Acidosis

Iron toxicity has a characteristic 5-phase course:

  • Phase 1 (0–6h): GI — vomiting, diarrhea, GI hemorrhage (direct irritation)
  • Phase 2 (6–24h): Apparent recovery — "quiet phase"
  • Phase 3 (12–48h): Systemic toxicity — metabolic acidosis, shock, coagulopathy
  • Phase 4 (2–4 days): Hepatic necrosis, liver failure
  • Phase 5 (2–8 weeks): Pyloric/bowel obstruction from scarring

Antidote: Deferoxamine (chelates free iron in plasma)

▼ Toxic Alcohols (Methanol & Ethylene Glycol)

Methanol (windshield fluid, moonshine)
  • Initial: ethanol-like intoxication
  • Latent 12–24h (while metabolite forms)
  • Visual changes: blurring → blindness (formic acid damages optic nerve)
  • Anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolite: formate (from formic acid)
Ethylene Glycol (antifreeze)
  • Initial: ethanol-like intoxication
  • 12–36h: renal failure
  • Calcium oxalate crystals in urine
  • Anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • Metabolite: oxalic acid → oxalate crystals

Both: Elevated osmol gap (parent compound) + anion gap metabolic acidosis (metabolites). Antidote: fomepizole (4-MP) — inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, blocks formation of toxic metabolites.

🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 8 Buzzwords
  • Opioid: AMS + miosis + ↓ respirations → naloxone
  • TCA: Wide QRS + hypotension + seizures + anticholinergic → NaHCO₃
  • Salicylate: Tinnitus + resp alkalosis → met acidosis → urinary alkalinization/HD
  • APAP: Silent → RUQ pain + ↑LFTs → liver failure → NAC
  • CO: Flu without fever + multi-family illness → 100% O₂
  • Iron: GI bleed → apparent recovery → hepatic failure → deferoxamine
  • Methanol: visual changes + AGMA → fomepizole
  • EG (antifreeze): renal failure + oxalate crystals + AGMA → fomepizole

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 8, Question 1

A 45-year-old construction worker presents to the ED confused and febrile (38.9°C). He has dry skin, mydriasis, and urinary retention. His HR is 128. His coworkers say he "drank from someone's water bottle that smelled weird." Map these findings to the most likely toxidrome and identify a plausible agent.

Consider: Dry skin vs. diaphoresis? Mydriasis vs. miosis? Hot? Which mnemonic applies?

✓ Answer: Anticholinergic toxidrome — likely atropine/scopolamine/jimsonweed or antihistamine

This is a textbook anticholinergic presentation: hot as a hare (hyperthermia), dry as a bone (dry skin — not diaphoresis), red as a beet (flushing), mad as a hatter (confusion/AMS), plus mydriasis, tachycardia, and urinary retention. Possible agents: atropine, scopolamine, antihistamines (diphenhydramine), TCA (though TCAs also have sodium channel effects), jimsonweed (Datura). Treatment is supportive; physostigmine (an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor) can be used in pure anticholinergic toxicity but is avoided in TCA OD (risk of seizures/asystole).

LO 9 — Time Course of Toxicity

Delayed vs. Rapid Toxicity · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 9: Recognize that some toxins cause delayed toxicity, and identify which ones

▼ Agents with Delayed Toxicity

Key concept: These patients may look well initially and be discharged prematurely. Knowing which toxins have delayed effects is critical for appropriate observation and treatment timing.

ToxinOnset of ToxicityWhat HappensCritical Action
APAP24–72 hoursNAPQI accumulation → centrilobular hepatic necrosisGet APAP level + time → nomogram → NAC
Hydrofluoric acidHours after skin contactSystemic hypocalcemia + hypomagnesemia → cardiac arrhythmiaTopical/IV/intra-arterial calcium gluconate
Ethylene glycol12–36 hours for renal failureInitial EtOH-like intoxication; then oxalic acid accumulates → renal tubular necrosisFomepizole; HD if renal failure
Methanol12–24 hours for visual symptomsFormic acid accumulates → optic nerve damage (blindness)Fomepizole; HD; folate supplementation
IronPhase 2 apparent recovery 6–24hThen systemic/hepatic toxicity in Phase 3 (12–48h)Do NOT discharge in apparent recovery phase
SulfonylureasHours to 12h+Delayed/prolonged hypoglycemia (esp. long-acting: glipizide, glyburide)Serial glucose monitoring 12–24h; octreotide
SR/XR medicationsHoursExtended-release formulations delay peak serum levelsObserve longer; WBI for undissolved tablets

▼ Agents with Rapid/Early Toxicity

ToxinOnsetPresentation
Isoniazid (INH)30–60 minutesRefractory seizures (GABA depletion via pyridoxine depletion); treat with pyridoxine (vitamin B6)
TCAsMinutes to 1–2hRapid cardiac toxicity (wide QRS, VT/VF), seizures, coma — can deteriorate within minutes
NicotineMinutesInitial nicotinic stimulation (tachycardia, HTN, fasciculations) → then paralysis; early seizures
CyanideSeconds to minutes (inhalation)Cellular asphyxiation (inhibits cytochrome oxidase); rapid coma, seizures, lactic acidosis
OrganophosphatesMinutesCholinergic crisis (SLUDGE) including bronchospasm/respiratory failure
⭐ INH Seizures — High-Yield USMLE:
  • Patient on INH for TB prophylaxis develops seizures
  • Mechanism: INH depletes pyridoxine (B6) → ↓ GABA synthesis → seizures
  • Benzos are partially effective — but definitive treatment is pyridoxine (gram for gram)
  • Also causes B6-responsive peripheral neuropathy with chronic use
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 9
  • Delayed: APAP (24–72h), hydrofluoric acid (hours), EG/methanol (12–36h), iron (Phase 2 then 3), sulfonylureas
  • Rapid: INH (30–60 min seizures), TCAs (minutes), nicotine, cyanide, organophosphates
  • A well-appearing patient is not necessarily safe — identify delayed toxins and admit for monitoring

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 9, Question 1

A patient taking INH for latent TB presents to the ED with generalized tonic-clonic seizures refractory to two doses of IV lorazepam. What is the antidote and mechanism, and why are benzodiazepines alone ineffective?

Consider: What does INH do to GABA synthesis? What cofactor is depleted?

✓ Answer: Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6) — restores GABA synthesis

INH inhibits pyridoxine (B6) metabolism by interfering with pyridoxal kinase. Pyridoxal phosphate is required for glutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) to synthesize GABA. With depleted B6, GABA production is severely impaired, causing seizures that are refractory to benzodiazepines (which work by potentiating GABA at GABA-A receptors — but if there's no GABA to potentiate, benzos fail). Pyridoxine (gram for gram with estimated INH dose, up to 5g empirically) directly restores GABA synthesis and terminates seizures.

LO 10 — Antidotes

Role of Antidotes in Poisoning Treatment · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 10: Describe the role of antidotes in the treatment of poisoning

▼ The Role of Antidotes — Key Concept

⭐ Critical Concept: Specific antidotes exist for only a minority of toxic exposures. Supportive care is the cornerstone of management for most poisonings. When an antidote is available, it is used in addition to — not instead of — supportive care.

Antidotes work through several mechanisms:

  • Competitive antagonism: naloxone (blocks opioid receptor), flumazenil (blocks benzo receptor)
  • Enzyme inhibition: fomepizole (inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase)
  • Chelation: deferoxamine (iron), EDTA/BAL (lead/heavy metals)
  • Antibody binding: Dig-Fab (digoxin), CroFab (snake venom)
  • Substrate replenishment: NAC (replenishes glutathione), pyridoxine (INH), methylene blue (methemoglobin)
  • Metabolic bypass: hydroxocobalamin (cyanide)

▼ Antidote Reference Table

ToxinAntidoteMechanism
Acetaminophen (APAP)N-acetylcysteine (NAC)Replenishes glutathione; directly conjugates NAPQI
OpioidsNaloxoneCompetitive μ-opioid receptor antagonist
BenzodiazepinesFlumazenilCompetitive GABA-A receptor antagonist (⚠️ use cautiously — can precipitate withdrawal seizures)
Beta-blockersGlucagon, high-dose insulinGlucagon bypasses blocked β-receptors to ↑ cAMP; insulin-glucose for cardiac contractility
Calcium channel blockersCalcium, glucagon, high-dose insulin, lipid emulsionCalcium competes for blocked channels; insulin improves cardiac metabolism
DigoxinDigoxin-specific Fab (Dig-Fab)Antibody fragments bind free digoxin, remove from Na/K-ATPase
OrganophosphatesAtropine + Pralidoxime (2-PAM)Atropine: antimuscarinic; pralidoxime: reactivates acetylcholinesterase (before aging)
Methanol/Ethylene glycolFomepizole (4-MP)Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase → blocks toxic metabolite formation
Carbon monoxide100% O₂ / Hyperbaric O₂Mass action displaces CO from hemoglobin; reduces COHb t½
CyanideHydroxocobalamin (1st line); or sodium nitrite + sodium thiosulfateHydroxocobalamin binds CN⁻ → cyanocobalamin (excreted); nitrite → methemoglobin competes for CN⁻; thiosulfate → thiocyanate (excreted)
IronDeferoxamineChelates free plasma iron → ferrioxamine (excreted in urine)
LeadSuccimer, EDTA, BALChelation (see LO 2)
MethemoglobinMethylene blueAccepts electrons from NADPH → reduces Fe³⁺ back to Fe²⁺
WarfarinVitamin K1; FFP (acute reversal)Restores vitamin K–dependent clotting factors
HeparinProtamine sulfateIonic binding neutralizes heparin
Isoniazid (INH)Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)Restores B6-dependent GABA synthesis
TCASodium bicarbonateNarrows QRS (Na loading + alkalinization)
SulfonylureasOctreotideSuppresses pancreatic insulin secretion; prevents rebound hypoglycemia

▼ High-Yield Antidotes — Additional Details

💉 Naloxone — Important Nuances

  • Half-life 30–90 min — much shorter than most opioids
  • May need repeat dosing or continuous infusion (rule: 2/3 of reversal dose per hour)
  • Precipitates acute withdrawal in opioid-dependent patients — use lowest effective dose
  • Does NOT reverse buprenorphine well at standard doses (high receptor affinity)
  • Route: IV preferred; also IM, intranasal (Narcan nasal spray)

🧪 Fomepizole (4-MP) vs. Ethanol

  • Both inhibit alcohol dehydrogenase to block toxic metabolite formation from methanol and EG
  • Fomepizole preferred (no CNS depression, no hypoglycemia, easier to dose)
  • Ethanol used if fomepizole unavailable (maintains BAL ~100 mg/dL)
🎯 USMLE Step 1 — Must-Know Antidote Pairs
  • APAP → NAC
  • Opioids → naloxone
  • Organophosphates → atropine + pralidoxime
  • Digoxin → Dig-Fab (NOT hemodialysis)
  • Methanol/EG → fomepizole
  • Cyanide → hydroxocobalamin
  • CO → 100% O₂
  • INH → pyridoxine
  • Lead → succimer/BAL/EDTA
  • Methemoglobin → methylene blue
  • TCA → sodium bicarbonate (for QRS widening)

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 10, Question 1

A 72-year-old man on digoxin for atrial fibrillation presents with nausea, yellow-green visual halos, and his EKG shows bidirectional ventricular tachycardia with complete heart block. His digoxin level is 4.2 ng/mL (therapeutic 0.5–2.0). What is the antidote and why is hemodialysis ineffective?

Consider: Digoxin's pharmacokinetics — Vd, protein binding, how it distributes in the body.

✓ Answer: Digoxin-specific Fab antibody fragments (Dig-Fab); HD ineffective due to large volume of distribution

Dig-Fab binds free digoxin in plasma, rapidly reversing toxicity. Bidirectional VT is the hallmark arrhythmia of digoxin toxicity. Hemodialysis is ineffective despite digoxin's small molecular weight because it has an enormous volume of distribution (~7 L/kg) — most digoxin is sequestered in skeletal muscle and tissue, not freely circulating in plasma. HD can only remove what's in the blood. Dig-Fab works by pulling digoxin out of tissue stores (by lowering free plasma levels), effectively redistributing it back into circulation where it's then bound by the antibody fragment and excreted renally.

LO 11 — Supportive Care

Role of Supportive Care in Poisoning · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 11: Describe the role of supportive care in the treatment of poisoning

▼ Supportive Care as the Cornerstone

⭐ Core Principle:
  • Specific antidotes exist for only a minority of toxic exposures
  • For the vast majority of poisonings, treatment is supportive — allowing the body to metabolize and eliminate the toxin
  • Supportive care keeps patients alive long enough for natural detoxification
  • Even when antidotes are available, supportive care is always provided concurrently

▼ Core Supportive Measures

MeasureIndication / Notes
Airway managementIntubate if: GCS ≤8, loss of airway protective reflexes, severe respiratory depression, anticipated clinical deterioration
Supplemental O₂All patients with toxin-related respiratory depression; always in CO poisoning
IV access + fluidsMaintain perfusion; correct dehydration from vomiting/diaphoresis
Cardiac monitoringContinuous telemetry + serial EKGs for all significant ingestions
Seizure managementBenzodiazepines first-line (lorazepam, diazepam); escalate to phenobarbital/propofol if refractory
HypotensionIV fluids first; vasopressors if refractory; specific agents depend on toxin (e.g., NaHCO₃ for TCA, calcium for CCB, glucagon for beta-blocker)
Temperature regulationHyperthermia (anticholinergic, sympathomimetic) — external cooling; Hypothermia — warming
Blood glucoseSerial glucose checks; IV dextrose for hypoglycemia (sulfonylureas, ethanol, β-blockers)
Psychiatric evaluationMandatory for all intentional overdoses prior to discharge
Poison Control consultation1-800-222-1222; call early and as needed throughout management

▼ Systems-Based Approach

🫁 Respiratory
  • O₂, airway positioning
  • Intubation threshold: low
  • Aspiration precautions
  • Treat bronchospasm (organophosphate/cholinergic: atropine)
❤️ Cardiovascular
  • Continuous monitoring
  • Serial EKGs
  • Correct electrolytes (K, Mg)
  • Vasopressors if refractory hypotension
🧠 Neurological
  • Benzodiazepines for seizures
  • Avoid physical restraints (worsens hyperthermia)
  • Frequent neuro exams
  • Head CT if unclear etiology of AMS
🔬 Metabolic/Renal
  • Serial electrolytes, glucose, LFTs
  • Urine output monitoring
  • Urinary catheter for anuric/oliguric states
  • Renal replacement if acute renal failure (EG, iron)
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 11
  • Supportive care = cornerstone of poisoning management (most toxins have no antidote)
  • Airway → low threshold to intubate in AMS or respiratory depression
  • Seizures → benzodiazepines first-line
  • Wide QRS + TCA → sodium bicarbonate (not just antiarrhythmics)
  • Intentional OD → mandatory psychiatric evaluation before discharge

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 11, Question 1

A 19-year-old is admitted after an intentional overdose of an unknown substance. She is now alert, hemodynamically stable, and medically cleared. Her physician writes a discharge order. What critical step is missing before discharge?

Consider: What is required by standard of care for all intentional overdoses?

✓ Answer: Mandatory psychiatric evaluation before discharge

All patients with intentional self-poisoning (overdose) must undergo a psychiatric evaluation before discharge to assess suicide risk, intent, safety planning, and the need for inpatient psychiatric admission. Medical clearance alone is insufficient. Additionally, delayed toxins (APAP, salicylates) must be ruled out with appropriate serum levels and adequate observation periods before declaring the patient "medically cleared." The safety of the home environment and means restriction should also be assessed.

LO 12 — Toxidromes

Classic Toxic Syndromes · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objective Covered
  • LO 12: Describe the major toxidromes

▼ Anticholinergic Toxidrome

🧠 Mnemonic: "Hot, Dry, Red, Mad" — The 4 Hatter Signs
▼
  • Hot as a hare — hyperthermia (lost sweating)
  • Dry as a bone — anhidrosis, dry mucous membranes
  • Red as a beet — flushing (vasodilation without sweating)
  • Mad as a hatter — AMS, agitation, delirium, hallucinations

Plus: "Can't see, can't spit, can't pee, can't sh*t"

  • Can't see — mydriasis (fixed dilated pupils), cycloplegia, blurred vision
  • Can't spit — dry mouth, decreased secretions
  • Can't pee — urinary retention
  • Can't sh*t — ileus/constipation, decreased bowel sounds

🔑 Additional Features

  • Tachycardia (lost vagal brake)
  • Seizures (severe toxicity)
  • Tachypnea
  • Mydriasis — CRITICAL distinguishing feature

🔑 Causative Agents

  • Atropine, scopolamine, benztropine
  • Antihistamines (diphenhydramine, promethazine)
  • TCAs (also have sodium channel + alpha-1 effects)
  • Antipsychotics (especially phenothiazines)
  • Plants: jimsonweed (Datura stramonium), deadly nightshade (Atropa belladonna)

🔑 Treatment

  • Supportive: cooling, benzos for agitation/seizures
  • Physostigmine (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor): reverses pure anticholinergic toxicity; contraindicated in TCA OD

▼ Cholinergic Toxidrome

🧠 Mnemonic: SLUDGE — Muscarinic Effects
▼
  • Salivation
  • Lacrimation
  • Urination
  • Defecation / Diarrhea
  • GI distress (cramping)
  • Emesis
🧠 Mnemonic: DUMBELS — Muscarinic + Life-Threatening Features
▼
  • Defecation/Diarrhea
  • Urination
  • Miosis ← key distinguishing feature
  • Bradycardia / Bronchospasm / Bronchorrhea ← can be fatal
  • Emesis
  • Lacrimation
  • Salivation / Seizures

🔑 Nicotinic Effects (also present)

  • Tachycardia, hypertension (nicotinic ganglionic stimulation)
  • Fasciculations (NMJ stimulation)
  • Muscle weakness → paralysis (depolarizing block at NMJ)
  • Diaphoresis

🔑 Causative Agents

  • Organophosphates (insecticides: malathion, parathion; nerve agents: sarin, VX) — inhibit acetylcholinesterase irreversibly
  • Carbamates (aldicarb) — inhibit acetylcholinesterase reversibly
  • Pilocarpine, bethanechol (direct agonists)
  • Mushrooms (Clitocybe, Inocybe species — "SLUDGE mushrooms")

🔑 Treatment

  • Atropine: competitive antagonist at muscarinic receptors; large doses may be needed; titrate to drying of secretions (endpoint = dry lungs, not tachycardia)
  • Pralidoxime (2-PAM): reactivates acetylcholinesterase — must be given early before "aging" (irreversible binding occurs in organophosphate toxicity; not needed for carbamates)
  • Benzodiazepines for seizures

▼ Sympathomimetic Toxidrome

TachycardiaHTNHyperthermiaDiaphoresisMydriasisAgitation
FeatureSympathomimeticvs. Anticholinergic
Tachycardia✓✓
Hyperthermia✓✓
Mydriasis✓✓
AMS/Agitation✓✓
SkinMoist/diaphoretic ← KEYDry ← KEY
Bowel soundsHyperactive ← KEYDecreased/absent ← KEY

🔑 Causative Agents

  • Cocaine, amphetamines (meth, MDMA/ecstasy)
  • Pseudoephedrine, ephedrine
  • Caffeine (in very high doses)
  • Theophylline

🔑 Treatment

  • Benzodiazepines: first-line for agitation, seizures, tachycardia, and hypertension
  • External cooling for hyperthermia
  • Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine OD (risk of unopposed alpha → severe HTN)
  • Nitrates or calcium channel blockers for coronary vasospasm (cocaine)

▼ Narcotic / Opioid Toxidrome

🧠 Classic Opioid Triad
▼
  • 1. AMS (sedation, coma)
  • 2. Miosis (pinpoint pupils) ← KEY differentiator
  • 3. Respiratory depression (↓ rate, shallow)

Plus: bradycardia, hypotension, hypothermia, hyporeflexia, decreased bowel sounds

🔑 Treatment

  • Naloxone (competitive opioid antagonist)
  • May need repeat doses or infusion (naloxone t½ < opioid t½)
  • Support ventilation while preparing naloxone

▼ Side-by-Side Toxidrome Comparison

FeatureAnticholinergicCholinergicSympathomimeticOpioid
PupilsMydriasis ↑Miosis ↓Mydriasis ↑Miosis ↓↓
HRTachycardiaBradycardiaTachycardiaBradycardia
BPVariable/↑↓ (or ↑ nicotinic)↑↑↓
Temp↑↑Normal/↑↑↑↓
SkinDry, flushedWet (diaphoretic)Wet (diaphoretic)Normal/cool
Secretions↓↓ Dry↑↑ SLUDGEMild ↑↓
Bowel sounds↓ (ileus)↑↑ (diarrhea)↑↓
UrinationRetention ↓Urination ↑VariableRetention ↓
Mental statusAgitation, deliriumAMS (seizures)Agitation, paranoiaSedation, coma
RespirationTachypneaBronchospasm ↓Tachypnea↓↓ Depression
Key antidotePhysostigmineAtropine + 2-PAMBenzosNaloxone
🎯 USMLE Step 1 Summary — LO 12 Toxidromes
  • Anticholinergic: Hot/Dry/Red/Mad + mydriasis + tachycardia + ↓ secretions → physostigmine (not with TCAs)
  • Cholinergic: SLUDGE + DUMBELS + miosis + bradycardia + bronchorrhea → atropine + pralidoxime
  • Sympathomimetic: Tachycardia + HTN + hyperthermia + diaphoresis + mydriasis → benzos (NO beta-blockers in cocaine)
  • Opioid: AMS + miosis + respiratory depression → naloxone
  • Key differentiator: Skin — anticholinergic = DRY; sympathomimetic = WET

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 12, Question 1

A farm worker is brought in unresponsive after working in a field that was recently sprayed. His clothing is wet. Exam: miosis, bradycardia (HR 42), diaphoresis, excessive salivation and lacrimation, audible wheezing, and muscle fasciculations. Map the specific findings to the toxidrome and explain each mechanistically.

Consider: What system is being overstimulated? What separates muscarinic from nicotinic effects?

✓ Answer: Cholinergic toxidrome from organophosphate poisoning; treat with atropine + pralidoxime

This is classic organophosphate poisoning (pesticide exposure). Organophosphates inhibit acetylcholinesterase → excessive acetylcholine (ACh) accumulation at all cholinergic synapses:

Muscarinic effects (parasympathetic): miosis (miosis ≠ mydriasis — ACh constricts pupils), bradycardia (↑ vagal tone), diaphoresis, salivation/lacrimation (SLUDGE), bronchospasm/bronchorrhea (wheezing — potentially fatal)

Nicotinic effects (NMJ + ganglia): fasciculations (NMJ overstimulation → depolarizing block), then muscle weakness/paralysis; tachycardia/HTN from ganglionic stimulation (may be masked by bradycardia)

Treatment: (1) Atropine — blocks muscarinic effects; titrate to drying of secretions (not heart rate); (2) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) — reactivates acetylcholinesterase before aging; must be given early.

Practice Questions

Lecture 21 — Poisoning Conference & Cases · HoyaDocs GI Block

LOs 1–2 — Epidemiology & Fatal Substances (Q1–Q3)

Question 1

According to 2022 National Poison Data System (NPDS) data, approximately what percentage of all reported poisoning exposures in the United States involve children 5 years old or younger?

A. 10%

B. 20%

C. 40%

D. 60%

E. 75%

✓ Correct: C — ~40%

The NPDS 2022 annual report documents approximately 40% of all human exposures occur in children ≤5 years. These are predominantly unintentional (exploratory) ingestions with relatively low fatality rates. In contrast, the majority of fatalities occur in adults, most often from intentional (self-harm) overdoses. Answer choices A and B underestimate pediatric exposure prevalence; D and E greatly overestimate it.

Question 2

A toxicologist is presenting data from the NPDS 2022 annual report. Which of the following substance categories is associated with the greatest number of fatalities in the NPDS database?

A. Analgesics (including acetaminophen)

B. Opioids

C. Sedative/hypnotics

D. Antidepressants

E. Cleaning substances

✓ Correct: C — Sedative/hypnotics (299 deaths in 2022)

The NPDS 2022 fatality ranking: sedative/hypnotics (299) > APAP alone (270) > opioids (244) > alcohols (231). Note that "analgesics" is the #1 exposure category (11.5% of all calls) but APAP specifically is #2 in fatalities. Opioids are #3 in NPDS fatalities — though total opioid deaths nationally (CDC data) vastly exceed NPDS numbers because most opioid fatalities go directly to emergency services without a poison control call. Cleaning substances are a top exposure category in children but rarely fatal. Antidepressants (especially TCAs) are dangerous but rank lower in overall fatalities.

Question 3

A 2-year-old is brought in after ingesting something from the grandmother's medicine cabinet. She is found to have bradycardia (HR 42), hypotension, and bidirectional ventricular tachycardia on EKG. This presentation is most consistent with ingestion of which of the following?

A. Aspirin

B. Diphenhydramine

C. Digoxin

D. Lisinopril

E. Metformin

✓ Correct: C — Digoxin

Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia (alternating QRS axis) is the hallmark EKG finding of digoxin toxicity. Bradycardia and varying degrees of AV block are also characteristic. The scenario of a child accessing a grandparent's "heart medication" and developing cardiac toxicity strongly suggests a cardiac glycoside (digoxin). Treatment: Digoxin-specific Fab antibody fragments. Aspirin causes metabolic acidosis/tinnitus, not bradycardia. Diphenhydramine causes anticholinergic toxidrome with tachycardia. Lisinopril causes hypotension but not this specific arrhythmia. Metformin can cause lactic acidosis in overdose.

LOs 3–5 — History-Taking, Alert Presentations, Labs (Q4–Q6)

Question 4

A 28-year-old woman presents to the ED after an intentional overdose. She states she "only took Benadryl." She appears well and requests to leave. Which of the following additional laboratory tests must be obtained regardless of her stated history?

A. Serum lithium level

B. Serum acetaminophen and salicylate levels

C. Urine drug screen only

D. CBC and CMP only

E. No labs needed if she is asymptomatic

✓ Correct: B — Serum acetaminophen and salicylate levels

In ALL intentional overdoses, serum acetaminophen and salicylate levels must be obtained regardless of the stated ingestion. Both are silent toxins with delayed presentations — APAP causes hepatotoxicity 24–72h later and salicylate causes mixed acid-base disorder. Patients with intentional overdose frequently minimize or misstate what they took. A normal appearing patient who "only took Benadryl" may have co-ingested APAP (commonly combined in products like NyQuil, Tylenol PM). Urine drug screen (C) alone is insufficient — it misses APAP and salicylates. D is reasonable but incomplete without the specific drug levels. E is dangerous — never send home an intentional OD without appropriate labs and psychiatric evaluation.

Question 5

In January, a family of 5 visits the ED. The parents and 2 of the 3 children have severe headaches, nausea, and confusion. The youngest child (4 months) is irritable. All were well yesterday. Their dog has also been lethargic for 2 days. Standard pulse oximetry shows SpO₂ of 99% in all affected members. Which is the most appropriate next diagnostic step?

A. Lumbar puncture to evaluate for meningitis

B. CT head for intracranial pathology

C. Arterial blood gas with co-oximetry to measure carboxyhemoglobin

D. Urine drug screen

E. Blood cultures for bacteremia

✓ Correct: C — Arterial blood gas with co-oximetry

The classic CO poisoning presentation: multiple household members (including pets) with flu-like illness without fever in winter. Standard pulse oximetry is falsely normal because it cannot distinguish carboxyhemoglobin (COHb) from oxyhemoglobin — both absorb similarly at the measured wavelengths. Co-oximetry on ABG directly measures COHb. The family should be removed from the home immediately. Treatment: 100% O₂ via non-rebreather mask; hyperbaric O₂ for severe cases or pregnant patients. LP (A) and CT head (B) are premature without first confirming/ruling out CO. Blood cultures (E) are for suspected bacteremia with fever, not appropriate here.

Question 6

A 22-year-old man presents unresponsive after a known drug ingestion. His EKG shows a QRS of 180 ms and a prolonged QTc of 560 ms. He is hypotensive at 78/40. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial intervention targeting the EKG abnormality?

A. IV amiodarone

B. Synchronized cardioversion

C. IV sodium bicarbonate

D. IV calcium gluconate

E. IV magnesium sulfate only

✓ Correct: C — IV sodium bicarbonate

Wide QRS (>120 ms) with hemodynamic instability in an overdose context strongly suggests TCA (tricyclic antidepressant) toxicity via sodium channel blockade. The treatment for TCA-induced wide QRS is sodium bicarbonate (1–2 mEq/kg IV) — the sodium load reverses the channel blockade AND alkalinization shifts the equilibrium away from channel binding. This narrows the QRS and can be life-saving. Amiodarone (A) is contraindicated in TCA OD as it can worsen QT prolongation and arrhythmias. Cardioversion (B) is not indicated for this wide complex tachycardia in TCA OD. Calcium (D) is for calcium channel blocker or hyperkalemia. Magnesium (E) treats QT-related torsades de pointes, not wide QRS.

LOs 6–7 — Decontamination & Enhanced Elimination (Q7–Q9)

Question 7

A 3-year-old ingests drain cleaner (sodium hydroxide) at home. His mother calls 911. The paramedics ask you what to do while en route. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate home management?

A. Induce vomiting immediately

B. Give a small amount of water or milk to dilute

C. Administer activated charcoal

D. Give orange juice to neutralize the alkali

E. Do nothing; wait for EMS

✓ Correct: B — Small amount of water or milk to dilute

For caustic ingestion (acid or alkali), dilution with a small amount of water or milk (120–240 mL) is appropriate. This reduces the concentration of the caustic agent at the mucosal surface. Never induce vomiting (A) — re-exposing damaged esophageal mucosa to caustic material causes additional necrosis and risks perforation. Never neutralize (D) — acid-base neutralization is exothermic and generates heat, causing thermal injury on top of chemical injury. Activated charcoal (C) is not indicated for caustic ingestion (interferes with endoscopy, no benefit). Doing nothing (E) misses the opportunity for immediate dilution.

Question 8

A patient with severe aspirin (salicylate) overdose has a serum level of 95 mg/dL with altered mental status and metabolic acidosis. Which of the following enhanced elimination strategies is MOST appropriate at this level of toxicity?

A. Urinary acidification with ammonium chloride

B. Urinary alkalinization with IV sodium bicarbonate only

C. Hemodialysis

D. Multiple-dose activated charcoal only

E. Hemoperfusion

✓ Correct: C — Hemodialysis

At a salicylate level of 95 mg/dL with altered mental status and metabolic acidosis, hemodialysis is indicated. Hemodialysis indications for salicylate OD include: level >80–100 mg/dL, AMS, renal failure, pulmonary edema, or clinical deterioration. Urinary alkalinization (B) is a useful adjunct but insufficient alone at this level of toxicity. Urinary acidification (A) is actually harmful — it traps ionized salicylate in the blood, worsening toxicity. MDAC (D) can help reduce absorption but is not sufficient for severe toxicity. Hemoperfusion (E) is indicated for theophylline, not the first-line for salicylates.

Question 9

Which of the following correctly matches the toxin to the method by which it is most effectively eliminated?

A. Digoxin — hemodialysis

B. Lithium — multiple-dose activated charcoal

C. Methanol — urinary alkalinization

D. Ethylene glycol — hemodialysis

E. Phenobarbital — hemodialysis

✓ Correct: D — Ethylene glycol → hemodialysis

Ethylene glycol is in the SLIME group dialyzable toxins: Salicylates, Lithium, Isopropanol, Methanol/Metformin, Ethylene glycol.
Why others are wrong: A — Digoxin is NOT effectively removed by HD (large Vd, tissue-bound; use Dig-Fab). B — Lithium is removed by HD, not MDAC (charcoal doesn't adsorb lithium). C — Methanol is removed by HD, not urinary alkalinization (urinary alkalinization works for weak acids like salicylates and phenobarbital, not alcohols). E — Phenobarbital is removed by MDAC (multiple-dose activated charcoal creates "gut dialysis") and urinary alkalinization, not hemodialysis primarily.

LOs 8–11 — Symptoms, Time Course, Antidotes & Supportive Care (Q10–Q15)

Question 10

A 34-year-old woman is brought in confused after an intentional overdose. She is afebrile. Exam shows HR 130, BP 88/52, pupils 3mm bilaterally, and decreased respiratory rate of 8/min with oxygen saturation 89%. Which antidote should be administered immediately?

A. N-acetylcysteine

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. Naloxone

D. Flumazenil

E. Glucagon

✓ Correct: C — Naloxone

The opioid triad: AMS + miosis (3mm/pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression. This patient has all three, plus hypotension — classic opioid overdose presentation. Naloxone (competitive μ-opioid antagonist) should be given immediately (IV, IM, or intranasal). While preparing naloxone, support ventilation with bag-mask if needed. NAC (A) is for APAP toxicity — no hepatotoxicity signs here. NaHCO₃ (B) is for TCA wide QRS. Flumazenil (D) would be for benzodiazepine reversal — benzodiazepines cause sedation but NOT miosis. Glucagon (E) is for beta-blocker toxicity.

Question 11

A 19-year-old college student is found unresponsive at a party. He is taken to the ED where his APAP level drawn at 4 hours post-ingestion is 210 mcg/mL. He is currently asymptomatic with normal LFTs. His roommate reports he took "a lot of Tylenol" about 4 hours ago. What is the most appropriate management?

A. Discharge with instructions to return if symptoms develop

B. Observe for 24 hours with repeat LFTs; no treatment needed until LFTs rise

C. Initiate N-acetylcysteine (NAC) treatment now

D. Perform gastric lavage to remove remaining APAP

E. Obtain liver biopsy to guide treatment decisions

✓ Correct: C — Initiate N-acetylcysteine (NAC) treatment now

A 4-hour serum APAP level of 210 mcg/mL falls in the "treatment line" on the Rumack-Matthew nomogram (the treatment threshold at 4h is approximately 150 mcg/mL). NAC should be started immediately — it is most effective within 8–10 hours of ingestion. Do NOT wait for symptoms or LFT elevation: APAP toxicity is clinically silent during the first 24 hours (Phase I). By the time symptoms appear (Phase II–III), significant hepatocellular necrosis may already be occurring. Discharging (A) or observing without treatment (B) would likely result in fulminant liver failure. Gastric lavage (D) is not indicated at 4 hours post-ingestion (beyond optimal window, and APAP is already absorbed). Liver biopsy (E) has no role in acute poisoning management.

Question 12

A patient presents with acute ethylene glycol (antifreeze) ingestion. Fomepizole is initiated. Which of the following best describes the mechanism by which fomepizole prevents toxicity?

A. It directly chelates ethylene glycol in the bloodstream

B. It inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing formation of oxalic acid

C. It competitively displaces ethylene glycol from renal tubular binding sites

D. It alkalinizes the urine, trapping ethylene glycol metabolites

E. It accelerates hepatic metabolism of ethylene glycol to nontoxic metabolites

✓ Correct: B — Inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase, preventing formation of oxalic acid

Ethylene glycol itself is relatively nontoxic. Its toxicity comes from its metabolite: alcohol dehydrogenase (ADH) converts EG → glycolaldehyde → glycolic acid → oxalic acid. Oxalic acid then binds calcium → calcium oxalate crystals (deposit in renal tubules → acute tubular necrosis). Fomepizole (4-methylpyrazole, 4-MP) is a potent inhibitor of ADH — by blocking this enzyme, it prevents formation of the toxic metabolites. The parent compound (EG) is then eliminated unchanged by the kidneys and by hemodialysis. This same mechanism applies to methanol toxicity (ADH → formic acid → optic nerve damage/blindness).

Question 13

A 55-year-old farmer develops severe abdominal cramping, excessive salivation and tearing, urinary incontinence, and begins seizing 30 minutes after spraying pesticides. Which of the following is the correct combination of antidotes?

A. Naloxone + flumazenil

B. N-acetylcysteine + sodium bicarbonate

C. Atropine + pralidoxime

D. Physostigmine + pyridoxine

E. Deferoxamine + succimer

✓ Correct: C — Atropine + pralidoxime

This is organophosphate poisoning (pesticide exposure) causing a cholinergic toxidrome: SLUDGE (salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/cramping, emesis) + seizures. Treatment: (1) Atropine — competitive muscarinic antagonist; blocks excessive ACh at muscarinic receptors; give large doses (2–4 mg IV, repeat every 5–10 min) titrating to drying of secretions; (2) Pralidoxime (2-PAM) — reactivates acetylcholinesterase by cleaving the organophosphate-enzyme bond; must be given early before "aging"; also treats nicotinic effects (fasciculations, paralysis) that atropine cannot. Benzos treat seizures concurrently. Physostigmine (D) does the opposite of what is needed — it inhibits cholinesterase and would worsen the cholinergic crisis.

Question 14

A patient on isoniazid (INH) for active TB presents with status epilepticus refractory to 4 mg IV lorazepam and 2 mg IV lorazepam repeated doses. What is the most appropriate next intervention?

A. Phenytoin loading dose

B. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) IV

C. Sodium bicarbonate

D. N-acetylcysteine

E. Magnesium sulfate

✓ Correct: B — Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) IV

INH-induced seizures are characteristically refractory to benzodiazepines. The mechanism: INH inhibits pyridoxal kinase → depleted pyridoxal phosphate (active B6) → impaired glutamic acid decarboxylase → ↓ GABA synthesis → excitotoxic seizures. Benzodiazepines enhance GABA at GABA-A receptors but cannot work if GABA production is severely impaired. Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) restores GABA synthesis and terminates seizures. Dose: 5g IV empirically (or gram-for-gram the estimated INH dose). Phenytoin (A) is not effective for INH seizures and is actually not first-line for any toxin-induced seizures. NaHCO₃ (C) and NAC (D) target different toxins. Magnesium (E) is for eclampsia or torsades.

Question 15

A cyanide-poisoned patient from a house fire is brought to the ED in coma with severe lactic acidosis (lactate 18 mmol/L). 100% O₂ has been started. Which antidote is the current first-line treatment for cyanide poisoning in the US?

A. Methylene blue

B. Dimercaprol (BAL)

C. Hydroxocobalamin

D. Sodium thiosulfate alone

E. Deferoxamine

✓ Correct: C — Hydroxocobalamin

Hydroxocobalamin (Cyanokit) is the current first-line antidote for cyanide poisoning in the US. It directly binds cyanide (CN⁻) in a 1:1 molar ratio to form cyanocobalamin (vitamin B12), which is then excreted renally. Advantages: safe in fire victims who may also have CO poisoning (unlike the older nitrite-based regimen which induces methemoglobinemia — harmful in CO-poisoned patients). The older regimen (sodium nitrite + sodium thiosulfate) works by: nitrite → induces methemoglobinemia (Fe²⁺ → Fe³⁺) → CN⁻ preferentially binds methemoglobin; thiosulfate → donates sulfur to rhodanese enzyme → converts CN⁻ to thiocyanate (non-toxic, excreted). Methylene blue (A) treats methemoglobinemia, not cyanide. Deferoxamine (E) chelates iron.

LO 12 — Toxidromes (Q16–Q18)

Question 16

A 24-year-old man is brought to the ED by friends after taking "something at a rave." Exam: HR 162, BP 188/110, temp 39.8°C, pupils 7mm bilaterally (mydriasis), diaphoretic skin, hyperactive bowel sounds, and severe agitation requiring restraints. Which toxidrome is most consistent with this presentation, and what drug class is most likely responsible?

A. Anticholinergic toxidrome — antihistamine

B. Sympathomimetic toxidrome — cocaine or amphetamines

C. Cholinergic toxidrome — organophosphate

D. Serotonin syndrome — SSRI + MAOI

E. Narcotic toxidrome — opioid

✓ Correct: B — Sympathomimetic toxidrome (cocaine/amphetamines/MDMA)

Key discriminating features here: diaphoresis (wet skin) and hyperactive bowel sounds point to sympathomimetic toxidrome rather than anticholinergic (which shares tachycardia, hyperthermia, mydriasis, and agitation, but has dry skin and decreased bowel sounds). Cocaine and amphetamines (including MDMA/ecstasy) are common at raves. Treatment: benzodiazepines are first-line for agitation, tachycardia, hypertension, and hyperthermia. Avoid beta-blockers in cocaine OD (risk of unopposed alpha → severe vasoconstriction and rebound HTN). Note: Serotonin syndrome (D) is similar but characteristically includes hyperreflexia and clonus which are not mentioned here.

Question 17

A patient is found unresponsive. Exam: HR 44, RR 4, BP 78/40, temperature 35.2°C, pupils 1–2 mm (pinpoint), skin cool and pale. Which of the following single interventions is most likely to rapidly reverse this clinical picture?

A. Atropine 1mg IV

B. Naloxone 0.4–2mg IV

C. Sodium bicarbonate 1 mEq/kg IV

D. Flumazenil 0.2mg IV

E. Physostigmine 2mg IV

✓ Correct: B — Naloxone 0.4–2mg IV

Classic opioid triad: AMS + miosis (pinpoint pupils) + respiratory depression. Bradycardia and hypothermia are also consistent. Naloxone (competitive μ-opioid antagonist) is the antidote. The dose range 0.4–2 mg is reasonable; in opioid-naive patients or for diagnostic purposes, 0.4 mg can be used; in severe overdose, 2 mg or more may be needed. If effective, pupils will dilate and respiratory rate improves within 1–2 minutes. Remember: naloxone's half-life is shorter than most opioids — re-sedation can occur; monitor closely and repeat or infuse as needed. Atropine (A) treats bradycardia from AV block (cholinergic/digoxin) but not opioids. NaHCO₃ (C) treats TCA wide QRS. Flumazenil (D) reverses benzodiazepines but NOT miosis. Physostigmine (E) would worsen bradycardia/bradypnea.

Question 18

A patient presents with the following constellation: bradycardia, excessive lacrimation and salivation, profuse sweating, urinary incontinence, small pupils, bronchospasm with audible wheezing, and muscle fasciculations. She was recently gardening. Which of the following best explains why pralidoxime (2-PAM) must be administered soon after atropine, rather than at a later time?

A. Pralidoxime potentiates the effect of atropine at muscarinic receptors

B. Delayed administration risks "aging" — irreversible bonding of organophosphate to acetylcholinesterase

C. Pralidoxime is only effective in the presence of ongoing muscarinic stimulation

D. Pralidoxime inhibits organophosphate absorption from the gut

E. Atropine metabolism requires pralidoxime as a cofactor

✓ Correct: B — Delayed administration risks "aging" — irreversible bonding of organophosphate to acetylcholinesterase

This is organophosphate poisoning (cholinergic toxidrome from gardening pesticide exposure). Organophosphates initially form a reversible covalent bond with the serine residue in acetylcholinesterase's active site. Over time — the speed depends on the specific organophosphate — this bond "ages" (undergoes dealkylation) into an irreversible form that pralidoxime cannot cleave. Once aging occurs, acetylcholinesterase is permanently inactivated and must be replaced by new enzyme synthesis (days). Pralidoxime works by nucleophilically attacking the phosphorylated enzyme, regenerating active acetylcholinesterase — but only before aging. Therefore, pralidoxime must be given early. Note: pralidoxime is typically not given for carbamate poisoning because carbamate-cholinesterase bonds are spontaneously reversible.