Lecture 12 — GI Embryology

HoyaDocs GI Block

Page Summaries

🧽 LOs 1–2: Body Plan & Mesentery
Covers LOs 1–2
Cranial-caudal & lateral folding · Tube-within-a-tube · Ventral mesentery (lesser omentum, falciform) · Dorsal mesentery derivatives · SAD PUCKER · White Line of Toldt
Practice Qs: Q1–Q3
🎪 LO 3: Foregut / Midgut / Hindgut
Covers LO 3
Celiac/SMA/IMA · Stomach 90° CW rotation · Vagal trunks · Liver dual origin · Pancreatic buds · Duodenal C-loop & recanalization · Midgut 270° CCW · Pectinate line
Practice Qs: Q4–Q9
🧠 LOs 4–5: ENS & Congenital Defects
Covers LOs 4–5
NCC migration (cranial→caudal) · MOANS C · RET mutations · Pyloric stenosis · Annular pancreas · Omphalocele vs. gastroschisis · Meckel diverticulum · Hirschsprung · VACTERL
Practice Qs: Q10–Q15
🎯 Step 1 High-Yield Traps
Left vagus = anterior vagal trunk · Tail of pancreas is intraperitoneal · Pyloric stenosis = non-bilious · Biopsy distal segment in Hirschsprung · Omphalocele has sac; gastroschisis does not · Annular pancreas: never divide the ring
Across all tabs

Official Learning Objectives Map

1 DESCRIBE how embryonic folding creates the tube-within-a-tube body plan Folding ▼
2 IDENTIFY the origin of the mesentery; DELINEATE ventral and dorsal mesentery derivatives Mesentery ▼
3 DESCRIBE the formation of the foregut, midgut, and hindgut and their associated vasculature Gut Tube ▼
4 TRACE the formation of the enteric nervous system ENS ▼
Practice Questions
5 CORRELATE the clinical presentation of congenital GI anomalies with their embryological cause Congenital ▼

LOs 1–2 — Embryonic Folding & Mesentery

Official LOs 1–2 · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objectives Covered
  • LO 1: DESCRIBE how embryonic folding creates the tube-within-a-tube body plan
  • LO 2: IDENTIFY the origin of the mesentery; DELINEATE ventral and dorsal mesentery derivatives; DISTINGUISH intraperitoneal from retroperitoneal organs

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 1, Question 1

A surgeon performing a laparoscopic cholecystectomy asks the medical student to identify the hepatoduodenal ligament. The student notes it contains three structures. Name each structure in the portal triad, its position within the ligament, and the embryological origin of this ligament.

Consider: Which mesentery gives rise to this ligament? What passes through it? How does compression of this structure control bleeding?

✓ Answer: Hepatoduodenal ligament = free edge of lesser omentum (ventral mesentery derivative).

The hepatoduodenal ligament is the free (right) edge of the lesser omentum, which is derived from the ventral mesentery. It contains the portal triad: (1) portal vein — most posterior and largest; (2) hepatic artery proper — to the left; (3) common bile duct — to the right. Compressing this ligament between the thumb (in the Foramen of Winslow) and the index finger is the Pringle maneuver — used to control hemorrhage from hepatic lacerations. The Foramen of Winslow (epiploic foramen) lies directly posterior to this ligament and is the entrance to the lesser sac.

Testing Your Understanding — LO 2, Question 1

A student is told the duodenum is retroperitoneal. She recalls that the duodenum is a foregut derivative with a mesentery. Explain the embryological process that placed the duodenum in a retroperitoneal position and identify which portion, if any, remains intraperitoneal.

Consider: What is "secondary retroperitoneal"? What rotation or movement causes this? Is the entire duodenum retroperitoneal?

✓ Answer: The duodenum is secondarily retroperitoneal due to mesenteric fusion during rotation.

The duodenum starts as an intraperitoneal structure with its own mesentery. As the stomach rotates 90° clockwise and the duodenum forms its C-loop, the duodenal mesentery fuses with the posterior peritoneum — rendering the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts of the duodenum secondarily retroperitoneal. The first part (duodenal bulb/cap) retains slight mobility and is considered intraperitoneal, making it the most common site for peptic ulcers and the part visible on barium swallow as the duodenal cap. Retroperitoneal position means duodenal perforations may initially cause retroperitoneal air/hematoma rather than frank peritonitis.

LO 3 — Foregut, Midgut & Hindgut

Official LO 3 · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objectives Covered
  • LO 3: DESCRIBE the formation of the foregut, midgut, and hindgut and their associated vasculature; key developmental events including stomach rotation, pancreatic bud fusion, midgut herniation and rotation, and hindgut partitioning

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 3, Question 1

A patient undergoes an exploratory laparotomy. The surgeon notes the pancreas is located posterior to the peritoneum. A medical student remarks this is unusual since the pancreas starts intraperitoneal. Explain the embryological process that led to its retroperitoneal position, and which part of the pancreas remains intraperitoneal.

Consider: What is "secondary retroperitoneal"? What embryological event makes an organ retroperitoneal? What mesentery retains the pancreatic tail?

✓ Answer: The pancreas is secondarily retroperitoneal; the tail remains intraperitoneal.

The pancreas is secondarily retroperitoneal. During stomach rotation and duodenal C-loop formation, the dorsal pancreatic mesentery is carried against the posterior body wall and fuses with the parietal peritoneum — leaving only the anterior surface covered by peritoneum. The body, neck, and head become retroperitoneal. However, the tail of the pancreas retains its mesentery via the splenorenal (lienorenal) ligament (a dorsal mesentery derivative) and remains intraperitoneal. This is clinically relevant: pancreatic tail cysts can extend into the lesser sac, and the tail is more mobile during surgery (used for distal pancreatectomy).

Testing Your Understanding — LO 3, Question 2

A newborn with Down syndrome presents with bilious vomiting and a double bubble sign on abdominal X-ray. The surgery team debates whether this is duodenal atresia or annular pancreas. Explain the embryological cause of each condition, and what intraoperative finding would distinguish them.

Consider: What normally happens to the duodenal lumen? What is the ventral pancreatic bud's normal rotation? Why can't imaging distinguish these two?

✓ Answer: Both are foregut anomalies causing distal duodenal obstruction; distinguished by intraoperative appearance.

Duodenal atresia: The duodenal lumen passes through a solid (occluded) stage during weeks 5–8 and normally recanalizes by week 10. Failure of recanalization → intrinsic obstruction of the duodenal lumen. Associated with Down syndrome.

Annular pancreas: The ventral pancreatic bud is bifid (split into two parts); when it rotates clockwise around the duodenum, both halves encircle it, forming a ring of pancreatic tissue that extrinsically compresses the lumen. Also associated with Down syndrome.

Both cause bilious vomiting (obstruction distal to ampulla) and double bubble sign (dilated stomach + duodenum). Imaging cannot distinguish them. Intraoperatively: annular pancreas shows pancreatic tissue surrounding the duodenum; duodenal atresia shows a blind-ending duodenum with no compressing tissue. Key management difference: never divide the annular pancreas — risk of fistula and pancreatitis.

LOs 4–5 — ENS & Congenital Defects

Official LOs 4–5 · HoyaDocs GI Block

Learning Objectives Covered
  • LO 4: TRACE the formation of the enteric nervous system from neural crest cells; explain why migration arrest causes Hirschsprung disease
  • LO 5: CORRELATE the clinical presentation of congenital GI anomalies with their embryological cause (pyloric stenosis, annular pancreas, omphalocele, gastroschisis, Meckel diverticulum, Hirschsprung, imperforate anus, anorectal fistulas)

🧠 Testing Your Understanding!

Testing Your Understanding — LO 4, Question 1

A 3-day-old male has not passed meconium since birth. His abdomen is distended and tympanic. Digital rectal exam causes explosive release of stool and gas. What is the diagnosis, what is the embryological defect, and which segment would you biopsy — the narrow distal segment or the dilated proximal segment?

Consider: What cells are absent? Where are they absent and why? What is the difference between the biopsy finding and the megacolon location?

✓ Answer: Hirschsprung disease; biopsy the narrow DISTAL (aganglionic) segment.

Hirschsprung disease — failure of neural crest cell migration to the distal colon. Because NCC migration is craniocaudal, arrest results in the distal rectosigmoid lacking ganglia. Without ganglion cells (Meissner + Auerbach), the distal segment is tonically contracted, causing functional obstruction. Stool accumulates proximal → megacolon is proximal.

Biopsy the narrow, aganglionic distal segment — this is where ganglion cells are absent. Gold standard: suction rectal biopsy showing absence of ganglion cells + hypertrophied nerve trunks on calretinin staining. Biopsying the dilated segment would give a false negative (it has normal ganglia).

Testing Your Understanding — LO 5, Question 1

A newborn female has meconium visible at the vaginal opening at birth. No anal opening is visible. What is the embryological defect? What associated anomalies must be urgently evaluated, and what mnemonic helps you remember the full association?

Consider: What structure normally divides the cloaca? What happens when it fails? What broader developmental syndrome encompasses these anorectal anomalies?

✓ Answer: Rectovaginal fistula + imperforate anus; evaluate for VACTERL.

The urorectal septum normally descends (week 7) to divide the cloaca into the anterior urogenital sinus and posterior anorectal canal. Failure of complete septation leaves a rectovaginal fistula, and failure of the anal membrane to break down (week 8) causes imperforate anus. Together, these are anorectal malformations.

Urgent evaluation for VACTERL association: Vertebral defects (spine X-ray), Anal atresia (present), Cardiac defects (echocardiogram), Tracheo-Esophageal fistula (evaluate for TEF/EA — most common associated anomaly requiring immediate attention), Renal anomalies (renal ultrasound), Limb defects. These share a common embryological window (weeks 4–8) and co-occur non-randomly.

Practice Questions

Lecture 12 — GI Embryology · HoyaDocs GI Block

LOs 1–2 — Embryonic Folding & Mesentery (Q1–Q3)

Question 1

A 28-year-old woman undergoes laparoscopic cholecystectomy. The surgeon identifies the hepatoduodenal ligament containing the portal triad. Which embryological structure gives rise to the hepatoduodenal ligament?

A. Dorsal mesentery

B. Ventral mesentery

C. Lateral plate mesoderm only

D. Neural crest cells

E. Splanchnic mesoderm of the hindgut

✓ Correct: B — Ventral mesentery

The ventral mesentery gives rise to: (1) the lesser omentum (gastrohepatic + hepatoduodenal ligaments) and (2) the falciform ligament. The hepatoduodenal ligament is the free edge of the lesser omentum and contains the portal triad (portal vein, hepatic artery proper, common bile duct). The Foramen of Winslow lies posterior to it. The dorsal mesentery (choice A) gives rise to the greater omentum, mesentery proper, transverse/sigmoid mesocolon, and gastrosplenic/splenorenal ligaments — all posterior structures.

Question 2

A 45-year-old man sustains blunt abdominal trauma and CT shows a retroperitoneal hematoma surrounding the duodenum. Which best explains why the duodenum is retroperitoneal?

A. The duodenum develops from the hindgut, which is always retroperitoneal

B. The duodenum was pushed posterior during pancreatic bud rotation

C. The duodenal mesentery fused with the posterior abdominal wall during rotation, making it secondarily retroperitoneal

D. The duodenum never had a mesentery and was always retroperitoneal

E. The duodenum lost its blood supply during rotation, causing retraction retroperitoneally

✓ Correct: C — Secondarily retroperitoneal via mesenteric fusion

The duodenum is secondarily retroperitoneal. It begins as an intraperitoneal structure with its own mesentery. During stomach rotation and C-loop formation, the duodenal mesentery fuses with the posterior peritoneum — making the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts retroperitoneal. The first part (duodenal bulb/cap) remains intraperitoneal and is the most common site for duodenal ulcers. Retroperitoneal position means perforations may present with retroperitoneal air rather than immediate peritonitis.

Question 3

During lateral folding of the trilaminar embryo, the lateral plate mesoderm splits into two layers. The space between them becomes which structure?

A. The notochord

B. The primitive streak

C. The intraembryonic coelom, which later subdivides into peritoneal, pleural, and pericardial cavities

D. The lateral body wall only; no internal cavities are formed

E. The yolk sac

✓ Correct: C — Intraembryonic coelom

Lateral folding splits the lateral plate mesoderm into the somatic (parietal) layer (lines body wall) and the splanchnic (visceral) layer (surrounds gut tube). The space between them is the intraembryonic coelom. As the embryo folds, this space subdivides into the pericardial, pleural, and peritoneal cavities. The gut tube (endoderm) is surrounded by splanchnic mesoderm and suspended by dorsal and ventral mesentery within the peritoneal cavity.

LO 3 — Foregut / Midgut / Hindgut (Q4–Q9)

Question 4

A surgical resident is asked to identify the left vagus nerve during a vagotomy. The attending states: "The left vagus becomes the anterior vagal trunk at the diaphragm level." Which embryological event explains this?

A. Caudal folding rotates the vagus 90° counterclockwise

B. Stomach rotation 90° clockwise moves the original left border (and left vagus) to the anterior position

C. The stomach undergoes 270° counterclockwise rotation, shifting the vagus 270°

D. Neural crest cell migration repositions the vagal trunks

E. The left vagus migrates through the lesser omentum to reach the anterior position

✓ Correct: B — Stomach rotates 90° clockwise → left vagus becomes anterior

The stomach rotates 90° clockwise (viewed from below). Original left surface → anterior (left vagus = anterior vagal trunk). Original right surface → posterior (right vagus = posterior vagal trunk). During truncal vagotomy, surgeons must use the terms "anterior" and "posterior" — not "left" and "right" — because the rotation repositions the nerves. Cutting only one trunk leads to incomplete vagotomy and recurrent ulcers.

Question 5

A radiologist reviews an abdominal CT and notes the cecum is in the left upper quadrant with the appendix near the spleen. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Situs inversus totalis

B. Intestinal malrotation

C. Meckel diverticulum

D. Annular pancreas

E. Sigmoid volvulus

✓ Correct: B — Intestinal malrotation

Normal midgut rotation is 270° counterclockwise (90° during herniation + 180° during retraction), placing the cecum in the RLQ. Incomplete rotation (malrotation) leaves the cecum in an abnormal position (LUQ in this case). Malrotation is dangerous because the small bowel mesentery has a narrow base, predisposing to midgut volvulus — a surgical emergency. Situs inversus totalis (choice A) would show ALL viscera mirrored, not just the cecum. Sigmoid volvulus (E) occurs in adults with a long sigmoid mesocolon.

Question 6

A full-term newborn has bowel protruding through the umbilicus, covered by a translucent membrane. Prenatal chromosomes showed trisomy 18. Which best describes the embryological defect?

A. Lateral abdominal wall closure defect to the right of the umbilicus

B. Failure of intestinal retraction from physiological umbilical herniation

C. Persistence of the vitelline duct

D. Failure of the urorectal septum to descend

E. Incomplete recanalization of the duodenum

✓ Correct: B — Failure of intestinal retraction = omphalocele

Omphalocele: During normal development, the midgut herniates through the umbilical ring (~week 6) and returns (~weeks 10–12). Failure of retraction = omphalocele. Key features: sac present (peritoneum + amnion), located at the umbilicus, associated with chromosomal anomalies (trisomies 13, 18; Beckwith-Wiedemann). Trisomy 18 confirms omphalocele vs. gastroschisis (gastroschisis = no sac, right of umbilicus, no chromosomal association). Choice A describes gastroschisis.

Question 7

A 4-year-old boy has two episodes of painless bright red rectal bleeding. A Tc-99m pertechnetate scan shows uptake 2 feet from the ileocecal valve. Which tissue type is responsible for the bleeding?

A. Colonic mucosa

B. Pancreatic exocrine tissue

C. Ectopic gastric mucosa

D. Hepatic tissue

E. Transitional epithelium

✓ Correct: C — Ectopic gastric mucosa

Meckel diverticulum containing ectopic gastric mucosa (most common ectopic tissue, ~50% of symptomatic cases). Ectopic gastric mucosa secretes HCl → ulcerates adjacent ileal mucosa → painless rectal bleeding in children. Tc-99m pertechnetate is taken up by gastric mucosa (normal stomach AND ectopic), making this the diagnostic test of choice ("Meckel scan"). Rule of 2s: 2% of population, ~2 inches long, ~2 feet from ileocecal valve.

Question 8

A 62-year-old man has rectal adenocarcinoma 3 cm above the pectinate line. CT shows liver metastases. Which embryological origin explains this drainage pattern?

A. Ectodermal origin → somatic/caval drainage → lungs first

B. Endodermal/hindgut origin → portal drainage → liver first

C. Mesodermal origin → systemic drainage → diffuse metastasis

D. Neural crest origin → lymphatic drainage only

E. Endodermal/hindgut origin → IVC drainage → lungs first

✓ Correct: B — Endodermal/hindgut origin → portal drainage → liver first

Above the pectinate line = endoderm (hindgut) → venous drainage via superior rectal vein → IMV → portal vein → liver → liver metastases first. Below the pectinate line = ectoderm → somatic drainage via inferior rectal vein → internal pudendal → internal iliac → IVC → lungs first. This Step 1 classic also applies to lymphatic spread: above pectinate line → internal iliac nodes; below → superficial inguinal nodes. Choice E (liver origin + IVC) confuses the embryological origin with the drainage pattern.

Question 9

A 6-week-old male has non-bilious projectile vomiting since age 3 weeks. He appears hungry after vomiting. ABG: pH 7.51, pCO₂ 48, HCO₃⁻ 37, K⁺ 2.9, Cl⁻ 88. What is the most appropriate next step after confirming the diagnosis?

A. Immediate surgical pyloromyotomy

B. IV fluid resuscitation with NS + KCl correction, then pyloromyotomy

C. Proton pump inhibitor therapy

D. Upper GI series with contrast, then immediate surgery

E. Nasogastric decompression alone; observe 48 hours

✓ Correct: B — Correct electrolytes first, then surgery

Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Labs show hypokalemic, hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis — from loss of HCl in vomitus and secondary renal K⁺ loss. Non-bilious vomiting = obstruction proximal to ampulla (pylorus). Surgery is not emergent: the metabolic derangement must be corrected first (IV NS + KCl) because alkalosis impairs anesthetic metabolism and shifts the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve. After correction: Ramstedt pyloromyotomy. Ultrasound confirms: pyloric muscle thickness >4 mm, channel length >14 mm.

LO 4 — Enteric Nervous System (Q10–Q11)

Question 10

A medical student incorrectly states: "The ENS is derived from the same embryological layer as the gut itself." From which source is the ENS actually derived, and what is its direction of migration?

A. Lateral plate mesoderm; migrates lateral to medial

B. Paraxial mesoderm; migrates caudal to cranial

C. Neural crest cells (ectoderm); migrate cranial to caudal

D. Endoderm; differentiates in situ from gut epithelium

E. Neural crest cells (ectoderm); migrate caudal to cranial

✓ Correct: C — Neural crest cells; migrate cranial to caudal

The ENS is derived from neural crest cells (ectoderm) that delaminate from the dorsal neural tube and migrate craniocaudally (esophagus → stomach → small bowel → colon → rectum). This is why NCC migration arrest causes Hirschsprung disease in the distal gut — migration never reached the most caudal segment. The gut epithelium = endoderm; smooth muscle = splanchnic mesoderm; ENS neurons/glia = ectoderm-derived NCC. This is a unique arrangement: ectoderm derivatives embedded within a mesodermal/endodermal organ.

Question 11

A neonate with Hirschsprung disease is evaluated by genetics. The father also had Hirschsprung disease, and the family carries a germline mutation linked to MEN2A. Which gene mutation links these two conditions?

A. APC tumor suppressor gene

B. BRCA1

C. RET proto-oncogene

D. GDNF receptor gene (GFRα1) only

E. NF1 (neurofibromin)

✓ Correct: C — RET proto-oncogene

RET proto-oncogene encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase critical for NCC migration (via GDNF–RET signaling). Loss-of-function mutations → impaired NCC migration → Hirschsprung disease. Gain-of-function mutations → constitutively active RET → MEN2A/2B (medullary thyroid cancer + pheochromocytoma; MEN2B also has mucosal neuromas). This is a classic Step 1 genetics integration: same gene, opposite mutation type, completely different phenotype. Loss-of-function = failed development; gain-of-function = neoplasia.

LO 5 — Congenital GI Defects (Q12–Q15)

Question 12

Two newborns are brought to the NICU. Newborn A: bowel at umbilicus, covered by a sac, trisomy 18 on karyotype. Newborn B: bowel to the right of umbilicus, no covering membrane, normal chromosomes. Which statement correctly distinguishes them?

A. Newborn A has gastroschisis; Newborn B has omphalocele

B. Newborn A has omphalocele; Newborn B has gastroschisis; omphalocele has higher chromosomal association risk

C. Both have the same prognosis since both involve bowel herniation

D. Newborn B has higher chromosomal risk than Newborn A

E. The sac in Newborn A indicates higher infection risk than Newborn B

✓ Correct: B — Omphalocele (A) vs. Gastroschisis (B); omphalocele = chromosomal association

Omphalocele (A): failure of intestinal retraction → sac present (peritoneum + amnion) → at umbilicus → associated with trisomies 13/18, Beckwith-Wiedemann. Gastroschisis (B): lateral body wall closure defect → no sac (bowel exposed to amniotic fluid) → right of umbilicus → isolated, typically no chromosomal association → good prognosis. Notably, the exposed bowel in gastroschisis is at higher risk for bowel injury from amniotic fluid exposure, even though it lacks a sac. Choice E reverses this — the sac in omphalocele is protective, not a source of infection risk.

Question 13

A 2-week-old male has progressive bilious vomiting. X-ray shows a double bubble sign. The team debates duodenal atresia vs. annular pancreas. Which finding would MOST specifically point to annular pancreas over duodenal atresia?

A. Trisomy 21 on karyotype

B. Polyhydramnios on prenatal ultrasound

C. A ring of pancreatic tissue encircling the duodenum at surgery

D. Bilious vomiting

E. Double bubble sign on X-ray

✓ Correct: C — Ring of pancreatic tissue at surgery

Both conditions share bilious vomiting, double bubble sign, polyhydramnios, and Down syndrome association — these features do not distinguish them. The definitive distinction is made intraoperatively: annular pancreas shows a ring of pancreatic tissue surrounding the duodenum (bifid ventral bud rotating around it), while duodenal atresia shows intrinsic obliteration of the duodenal lumen. Important management: in annular pancreas, never divide the pancreatic ring — this causes pancreatitis and fistula. Instead perform duodenojejunostomy bypass.

Question 14

A 3-day-old male has not passed meconium and has abdominal distension. Barium enema shows a narrow rectosigmoid segment with a dilated proximal colon. Rectal biopsy is performed. Which histological finding is diagnostic?

A. Excessive goblet cells in the mucosa

B. Hypertrophy of the circular muscle layer only

C. Absence of ganglion cells with hypertrophied nerve trunks in the aganglionic segment

D. Ectopic gastric mucosa in the rectosigmoid

E. Fibrosis of the submucosal plexus only, with normal myenteric plexus

✓ Correct: C — Absent ganglion cells + hypertrophied nerve trunks

Gold standard for Hirschsprung disease: suction rectal biopsy showing (1) absence of ganglion cells in both Meissner and Auerbach plexuses, and (2) hypertrophied nerve trunks (compensatory hyperplasia of acetylcholinesterase-positive nerves in the aganglionic segment). Calretinin staining highlights ganglion cells — absent in Hirschsprung. Critical technical note: biopsy must be taken from the narrow, aganglionic distal segment, at least 2 cm above the pectinate line (the most distal normal colon physiologically has a paucity of ganglion cells). Biopsying the dilated proximal (ganglionic) bowel gives a false negative.

Question 15

A newborn female has no visible anal opening. Meconium is found on the perineal skin posterior to the labia. What is the most appropriate next step after initial stabilization?

A. Emergency colostomy for all cases of imperforate anus

B. Evaluate for VACTERL association anomalies and classify defect as high or low before surgical planning

C. Primary repair of the fistula without further workup

D. Nasogastric tube placement and observation for 24 hours

E. Immediate MRI of the spine before any other evaluation

✓ Correct: B — Evaluate for VACTERL; classify defect level first

Imperforate anus with rectoperineal fistula (low defect — meconium on perineum = distal, translevator location, relatively good continence prognosis). The correct approach: (1) classify high vs. low defect (determines surgical approach); (2) VACTERL workup: echocardiogram (Cardiac), renal ultrasound (Renal), spine X-ray (Vertebral), evaluate for TEF (TE). Low defects may be primarily repaired; high defects often require staged colostomy + pull-through. Emergency colostomy for all (choice A) is incorrect — low defects may not need it. MRI spine (choice E) is not the first step.