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GI Lecture 19–20: Intestinal Pathology — Answer Key
Built from GI Lecture 19–20 (LOs 1–8). Close notes. Fill from memory. Reveal only after a genuine attempt.
📖 Use alongside: GI Lecture 19–20 — Intestinal Pathology (HoyaDocs)
Focus on: Meckel's rule of 2's, obstruction mechanisms, IBD (Crohn vs UC), celiac serology, ischemic bowel, diverticular disease, colonic polyps, and colorectal cancer sequencing.
Congenital & Diverticula
Obstruction & Hernias
Ischemic Bowel & Malabsorption
Celiac & IBD Overview
IBD Deep Dive & Diverticulitis
Polyps & Colorectal Cancer
Practice Qs
LO 1
ON EXAM — Meckel's rule of 2's, true vs pseudo diverticula, ectopic tissue complications, Hirschsprung RET mutations
Diverticula classification (LO1)
Feature
True Diverticulum
Pseudo (False) Diverticulum
Wall layers
All 3 (mucosa + submucosa + muscularis)
Mucosa + submucosa only
Origin
Congenital (developmental failure)
Acquired (increased intraluminal pressure)
Example
Meckel diverticulum
Colonic diverticulosis
Can contain ectopic tissue?
Yes
No
Meckel diverticulum — rule of 2's (LO1)
EXAM CLASSIC: Everything about Meckel comes in 2's — memorize this mnemonic cold.
Cross-section of invaginated mesentery with blood vessels surrounded by bowel wall
Air enema or barium enema (70% success); contraindicated if perforation, peritonitis, or >24–48 hrs symptoms
LO 3 · LO 4
ON EXAM — Watershed zones, SMA embolism pain out of proportion, acute vs chronic ischemia, malabsorption causes, fat-soluble vitamin deficiency pattern
Rectosigmoid junction (IMA/pudendal border) — second vulnerable
Acute mesenteric ischemia — types & clues (LO3)
CLASSIC STEP 1 CLUE: Severe periumbilical pain OUT OF PROPORTION to soft abdominal exam. This is the pathognomonic presentation before peritoneal signs develop.
Hypercoagulable state (increased pro-coagulants, endothelial activation) → DVT/PE/mesenteric thrombosis
Renal
Calcium oxalate (hyperoxaluria from fat malabsorption)
LO 5 · LO 6
ON EXAM — Crohn pathognomonic findings (fissuring ulcers, fistulas, strictures), UC cancer risk, toxic megacolon, diverticulitis imaging & complications
Crohn disease — distinctive pathologic features (LO5)
PATHOGNOMONIC: Crohn has skip lesions, fissuring ulcers, fistulas, and can affect any part of GI tract from mouth to anus. Full-thickness inflammation.
Skip lesions with patchy inflammation separated by normal mucosa
Fissuring (knife-like) ulcers penetrating into submucosa and muscularis
Intersecting linear ulcers with residual mucosa creating irregular mucosal pattern
8 questions — cover all 8 LOs. High-yield vignettes and pathophysiology.
Q1. A 5-year-old boy presents with painless rectal bleeding for 3 weeks. Colonoscopy is unremarkable, and the bleeding has decreased. A technetium-99m pertechnetate scan is ordered. What ectopic tissue is the scan designed to identify, and where is it located?
A. Ectopic pancreatic tissue in the ileum at Meckel's diverticulum
B. Ectopic gastric mucosa in the ileum at Meckel's diverticulum
C. Heterotopic colonic mucosa in the upper jejunum
D. Ectopic stomach wall in the antimesenteric border of ileum
E. Adenomatous polyp in the terminal ileum
B — Ectopic gastric mucosa in the ileum at Meckel's diverticulum Meckel's diverticulum is a remnant of the vitelline duct and frequently contains ectopic gastric mucosa, which secretes acid and can ulcerate adjacent ileal mucosa → painless GI bleeding (most common complication in children). The scan uses Tc-99m pertechnetate, which localizes to gastric mucosa. Located on the antimesenteric border, typically within 2 feet of the ileocecal valve (Rule of 2's: 2%, 2 feet, 2 inches, age 2).
Q2. A 68-year-old man with cognitive impairment and severe chronic constipation presents with acute abdominal distension, vomiting, and abdominal pain localized to the left lower quadrant. Abdominal X-ray shows a massively dilated sigmoid colon with a "bird's beak" appearance at the rectosigmoid junction. What is the diagnosis, and why is this patient at particularly high risk?
A. Cecal volvulus; risk factors include chronic laxative abuse and institutionalization
B. Sigmoid volvulus; risk factors include cognitive impairment, institutionalization, and chronic constipation
C. Adhesive small bowel obstruction; previous abdominal surgery is the major risk
D. Diverticulitis with perforation; elderly age and male gender increase risk
E. Intussusception in adults; malignancy as a lead point in the elderly
B — Sigmoid volvulus; risk factors include cognitive impairment, institutionalization, and chronic constipation Sigmoid volvulus = axial twist of the sigmoid colon, classically in institutionalized elderly with cognitive impairment and chronic constipation. The "bird's beak" is pathognomonic (twist at rectosigmoid junction). Risk: immobility, laxative abuse, neuropsychiatric conditions. Can be decompressed non-operatively with endoscopic reduction or barium enema in many cases, but surgery may be needed if blood supply is compromised (strangulation).
Q3. A 2-year-old girl presents with colicky abdominal pain, palpable abdominal mass, and "currant jelly" stools. Abdominal ultrasound demonstrates a target (doughnut) sign. Which of the following BEST describes the pathophysiology of this condition?
A. Adhesions between bowel loops cause partial luminal obstruction
B. One segment of bowel telescopes into an adjacent segment, compromising blood supply
C. A congenital diverticulum acts as a lead point, twisting the intestine
D. Increased intraluminal pressure herniates the mucosa through the muscularis
E. Bacterial infection causes villous necrosis and hemorrhagic diarrhea
B — One segment of bowel telescopes into an adjacent segment, compromising blood supply Intussusception = invagination of proximal bowel into distal bowel (most commonly ileocolic). Classic in children 6 months–3 years (peak 1–2 yrs). Presents with colicky pain, palpable mass, and "currant jelly" (blood-stained) stools. Ultrasound target sign = cross-section of invaginated mesentery + blood vessels surrounded by bowel wall. Non-operative reduction via air enema is successful in >70% if performed early; surgery if perforation or failed reduction.
Q4. A 45-year-old man with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with acute-onset severe periumbilical pain. Physical examination reveals a soft abdomen with minimal peritoneal signs. CT angiography shows an embolus occluding the superior mesenteric artery. Which segment of bowel is at GREATEST risk, and why is the "pain out of proportion" sign clinically significant?
A. Gastric antrum; early ulceration causes severe visceral pain
B. Terminal ileum; mesenteric ischemia causes loss of absorptive capacity
C. Jejunum, ileum, and right colon; visceral afferents signal ischemia before peritoneal signs develop
D. Descending and sigmoid colon; the IMA is collateral-dependent
E. Entire small intestine; SMA supplies all segments equally and is the primary blood supply
C — Jejunum, ileum, and right colon; visceral afferents signal ischemia before peritoneal signs develop SMA supplies jejunum, ileum, cecum, ascending colon, and proximal 2/3 of transverse colon (midgut). SMA embolism is a surgical emergency with high mortality if diagnosis is delayed. The pathognomonic clue is severe pain OUT OF PROPORTION to exam — visceral afferents detect ischemia before transmural necrosis and perforation occur, before peritoneal signs manifest. Elevated lactate, bloody diarrhea, and shock are late findings. Diagnosis: CT angiography. Treatment: immediate surgical revascularization or thrombectomy.
Q5. A 28-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and iron-deficiency anemia. Serologic testing shows elevated tissue transglutaminase (tTG) IgA and positive endomysial antibodies. Small bowel biopsy demonstrates villous atrophy with increased intraepithelial lymphocytes and crypt hyperplasia. Which of the following HLA types is she MOST likely to carry, and what dietary component triggers this pathology?
A. HLA-B27; bacterial lipopolysaccharide
B. HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8; gliadin (a wheat gluten protein)
C. HLA-DR3; gliadin and related cereal proteins
D. No specific HLA type required; IgE-mediated hypersensitivity to milk proteins
E. HLA-A2; tissue damage from molecular mimicry against commensal bacteria
B — HLA-DQ2 or HLA-DQ8; gliadin (a wheat gluten protein) Celiac disease is an autoimmune enteropathy triggered by gluten (specifically gliadin) in genetically predisposed individuals (HLA-DQ2 ~95%, HLA-DQ8 ~5%). Gliadin peptides are deamidated by tissue transglutaminase (tTG) → recognized by autoreactive T cells → mucosal inflammation → villous atrophy. Serology: tTG-IgA (most sensitive/specific) and endomysial antibodies. Biopsy is gold standard. HLA-DQ2/DQ8 is necessary but not sufficient (~3% of population carry it; only ~3% of carriers develop disease). Dietary trigger is gluten elimination (wheat, barley, rye).
Q6. A 35-year-old man with a 10-year history of crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss undergoes colonoscopy. Multiple areas of inflammation are noted with intervening normal-appearing mucosa (skip lesions). Biopsy reveals transmural inflammation with granulomas. Which complication is he at GREATEST risk for developing, and how does it differ pathophysiologically from ulcerative colitis?
A. Toxic megacolon; occurs exclusively in inflammatory bowel disease with continuous inflammation
B. Colorectal cancer; both UC and Crohn carry equal cancer risk after 10 years of disease
C. Fistula and stricture formation; transmural inflammation in Crohn allows penetration to involve adjacent structures
D. Massive hemorrhage; loss of colonic vasculature is more extensive in Crohn than UC
E. Fulminant colitis; mucosa-limited disease in Crohn allows rapid progression to perforation
C — Fistula and stricture formation; transmural inflammation in Crohn allows penetration to involve adjacent structures Crohn disease is characterized by TRANSMURAL (full-thickness) inflammation with skip lesions, fissuring ulcers, and penetrating inflammation. This leads to fistulas (to other bowel loops, skin, or bladder), strictures (from fibrosis), and abscesses — unique to Crohn. Ulcerative colitis is LIMITED TO THE MUCOSA AND SUBMUCOSA → continuous inflammation in colon only → bloody diarrhea without fistulas. Toxic megacolon and CRC risk are seen in both, but fistulization is Crohn-specific. Granulomas on biopsy are pathognomonic for Crohn (~40% of cases).
Q7. A 64-year-old man with a history of chronic constipation and diverticulosis presents with acute left lower quadrant pain, fever, and leukocytosis. CT imaging reveals diverticula with pericolic fat stranding and a small fluid collection. He is treated conservatively with bowel rest and antibiotics. At follow-up 6 months later, he reports recurrent episodes of abdominal pain and has noticed pneumaturia (air in urine). What complication has developed, and why is it more common in men?
A. Colovesical fistula; more common in men because the bladder is directly anterior to the sigmoid colon without the uterus interposing
B. Chronic diverticulitis with abscess formation; men have more extensive diverticula than women
C. Colorectal cancer arising from long-standing inflammation; older age is the predominant risk factor
D. Adhesions from recurrent inflammation causing small bowel obstruction; men have more visceral adhesions
E. Pericolic abscess with rupture into peritoneum; severe sepsis in men but not women
A — Colovesical fistula; more common in men because the bladder is directly anterior to the sigmoid colon without the uterus interposing Diverticulitis complicated by fistulization most commonly involves colovesical fistula (sigmoid → bladder) due to anatomic proximity. Pneumaturia (air in urine) and fecaluria are pathognomonic. More common in men because women have the uterus between sigmoid and bladder, protecting against fistula formation (women more prone to colovaginal fistula if hysterectomy has been performed). Colovaginal fistula presents with feculent vaginal discharge. Other fistulas: coloenteric, colocutaneous. Fistulous diverticulitis often requires elective colectomy after acute phase resolves.
Q8. A 42-year-old woman is found to have a 1.2 cm tubular adenoma during routine colonoscopy with no other polyps noted. The adenoma is removed completely with clear margins. What is the recommended surveillance interval for the next colonoscopy, and what molecular event is she at risk of NOT having prevented through polypectomy?
A. Return in 1 year; adenomatous polyps that are not removed progress to carcinoma within 2–3 years
B. Return in 5 years; even small adenomas contain both KRAS and TP53 mutations
C. Return in 10 years; small adenomas have not yet acquired the TP53 mutation necessary for malignant transformation
D. Return in 3 years; all adenomas progress to cancer if given sufficient time (adenoma-carcinoma sequence)
E. Return in 2 years; the small size suggests aggressive biology and early acquisition of KRAS mutation
C — Return in 10 years; small adenomas have not yet acquired the TP53 mutation necessary for malignant transformation The adenoma-carcinoma sequence is a multi-hit process: APC loss (early) → KRAS activation (intermediate) → TP53 loss (late) → invasion. Small adenomas (<1 cm) typically have NOT yet acquired the TP53 mutation, so polypectomy effectively prevents cancer development. Surveillance: 1 adenoma <1 cm → 10 years; 2–3 adenomas or 1 adenoma ≥1 cm → 5 years; ≥4 adenomas or any with high-grade dysplasia → 3 years. The process takes ~10 years average from adenoma to cancer, giving a window for screening and surveillance to prevent CRC.