Instructions: Select the single best answer. Explanations appear immediately after each response. Your scores populate the Score Report tab in real time.
Question 1 of 5 — LO 1 · GH Receptor Biology
A researcher studies a transgenic mouse with targeted disruption of the JAK2 tyrosine kinase gene in hepatocytes only. Compared to wild-type mice, these animals have NORMAL pulsatile pituitary GH secretion but markedly reduced serum IGF-1 and short-limbed dwarfism. Which receptor's signaling is most directly disrupted by this hepatocyte-specific JAK2 knockout?
B. The hepatic GH receptor is a single-pass cytokine receptor that signals via JAK2 → STAT5 phosphorylation → transcription of the IGF-1 gene. Loss of JAK2 in hepatocytes blocks this specifically — pituitary GH secretion is preserved (somatotropes don't need JAK2 for GHRH signaling), but liver IGF-1 production is lost → short-limbed phenotype resembling Laron syndrome. GHRH (A) uses a Gs-coupled GPCR on somatotropes. IGF-1R (C) is a separate RTK downstream. Directly tests LO 1.
Question 2 of 5 — LO 1/2 · Direct vs Indirect Effects
An investigator administers recombinant GH directly into the portal vein of a rat that has been genetically engineered to have a hepatocyte-specific GH receptor knockout (no liver IGF-1 production). Over 4 hours, blood glucose rises, free fatty acids rise, and lipolysis is quantifiable in adipose. However, there is NO increase in muscle protein synthesis or chondrocyte proliferation. This pattern of effects is most consistent with which classification of GH actions?
AAnabolic (IGF-1-mediated) effects only
BDirect catabolic/diabetogenic effects of GH without the anabolic IGF-1-mediated component
CConstitutive activation of the insulin receptor
DPure somatostatin antagonism
ECytokine cross-reactivity at the prolactin receptor
B. This experiment separates GH's two arms beautifully. Direct GH effects (catabolic/diabetogenic) — ↑ lipolysis, ↑ serum FFA, ↑ hepatic gluconeogenesis, ↓ glucose uptake in peripheral tissues — are mediated directly by GH receptor signaling in those tissues. Indirect (anabolic) effects require IGF-1 from the liver. Knocking out hepatic GH-R removes the anabolic/growth arm, leaving only the diabetogenic arm. Tests the dual-effect framework of LO 2 at a conceptual level.
Question 3 of 5 — LO 1 · IGF-1 Carrier Biology
A patient with severe malnutrition (albumin 1.9 g/dL, transferrin very low) has a GH stimulation test showing normal GH response to arginine. However, her serum IGF-1 and IGFBP-3 are both markedly decreased despite adequate caloric intake for the past 2 weeks. Her growth velocity is slow. Which of the following best explains her low IGF-1 level?
ALoss-of-function mutation in the GH receptor
BPrimary IGF-1 gene deletion
CProtein-calorie malnutrition creating a state of functional GH resistance at the liver, with impaired IGF-1 synthesis and carrier protein (IGFBP-3) production
DHepatic IGF-1 receptor deficiency
EPituitary somatotrope failure
C. Insulin is PERMISSIVE for hepatic GH receptor expression. Chronic malnutrition → low insulin → down-regulation of hepatic GH receptors → functional GH resistance → ↓ IGF-1 synthesis. Additionally, liver can't make IGFBP-3 efficiently without substrate and intact hepatocyte function. This is why poor childhood nutrition causes growth failure even when the GH axis itself is intact — a classic integration of LO 1 biology (GH effects require insulin + substrate) with clinical relevance.
Question 4 of 5 — LO 2 · Diabetogenic Effect
A 44-year-old woman with newly diagnosed acromegaly has fasting glucose 152 mg/dL and HbA1c 7.8%. She had no prior diabetes. A euglycemic-hyperinsulinemic clamp reveals a GLUCOSE DISPOSAL RATE that is 50% of expected for her body weight. Muscle biopsy shows NORMAL insulin receptor number and GLUT4 expression, but reduced GLUT4 membrane translocation in response to insulin. Which of the following best explains the finding?
DGlucagon excess from GH-induced α-cell hyperplasia
EReceptor internalization due to hyperinsulinemia
B. GH impairs insulin signaling DOWNSTREAM of the receptor — primarily by activating SOCS proteins and other inhibitors that dampen the PI3K/Akt/AS160 pathway → GLUT4 vesicles don't translocate to the membrane despite normal receptor binding and insulin levels. This is the molecular basis for GH's diabetogenic effect. Note: ~30–50% of acromegalics develop T2DM; resolution follows tumor treatment. Tests LO 2 at a molecular mechanism level.
Question 5 of 5 — LO 1 · GH-PRL Receptor Overlap
A 52-year-old woman has untreated acromegaly with serum GH 85 ng/mL (very high; normal <10). Six months after diagnosis, she develops galactorrhea despite normal prolactin levels. A detailed analysis shows her prolactin is actually at the low end of normal, and no prolactinoma is present. Which of the following best explains her galactorrhea?
ASubclinical lactotrope adenoma missed on imaging
BAt very high concentrations, GH cross-reacts with the prolactin receptor due to structural homology
CIGF-1 directly stimulates mammary epithelium to produce milk
DDopamine transporter down-regulation from stress
EAutoimmune mammary gland stimulation
B. GH and prolactin are structurally homologous (same evolutionary family of cytokine receptors and similar primary sequence). At physiologic GH levels, cross-reactivity is minimal, but at the VERY high levels seen in untreated acromegaly, GH weakly activates the PRL receptor on mammary epithelium → galactorrhea without elevated PRL. This is classic acromegaly trivia — treating the GH excess resolves the galactorrhea. Reinforces LO 1 receptor family understanding.
Block 2 — Regulation & Pulsatility
5 questions · LOs 3, 4
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07:30
Block Timer
Instructions: Questions emphasize circadian/lifespan regulation, stimulators/inhibitors, and feedback logic.
Question 1 of 5 — LO 3/4 · OGTT Physiology
A 40-year-old man undergoes a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test during investigation of possible acromegaly. Serial serum GH measurements are: baseline 4.0 ng/mL; 30 min 3.8 ng/mL; 60 min 3.5 ng/mL; 90 min 3.6 ng/mL; 120 min 3.4 ng/mL. Simultaneous serum glucose rose from 88 to 165 mg/dL and fell back to 118 mg/dL at 120 min. Which of the following interpretations is correct?
ANormal response — GH would be expected to stay roughly constant during OGTT
BAbnormal — GH failed to suppress below 1 ng/mL, consistent with autonomous (acromegalic) secretion
CGH deficiency confirmed by low baseline
DLaron syndrome pattern (HIGH GH, normal IGF-1)
EResult is invalid because glucose did not rise enough
B. Normal physiology: hyperglycemia strongly inhibits GH via central feedback (↑somatostatin, ↓GHRH). After 75g oral glucose, GH should fall below 1 ng/mL in healthy subjects. Failure to suppress is the hallmark of autonomous GH secretion from a pituitary adenoma. Combine with elevated IGF-1 and MRI → diagnose acromegaly. Directly tests LO 4 and the clinical application of GH regulation.
Question 2 of 5 — LO 3 · Pulsatility / Sleep
A pediatric endocrinologist is investigating a 9-year-old boy with short stature. Overnight serial GH measurements (every 30 min) reveal a normal response pattern — multiple pulses throughout the night, with the largest pulse occurring during stage 4 slow-wave sleep at approximately 11:30 PM. A single morning random GH at 8 AM is <0.1 ng/mL. Which of the following is the best interpretation?
ANormal GH axis — random morning GH is often undetectable in healthy subjects due to pulsatility; overnight pulses are the critical physiologic release
BGH deficiency based on the low morning random value
CSomatotroph adenoma with nocturnal pulsatile secretion
DReversed circadian pattern — suggestive of hypothalamic lesion
EFalse-low random GH from assay interference
A. GH is highly pulsatile. Between pulses, GH is often near-undetectable — a random daytime value is uninformative. The largest physiologic pulse occurs during stage 4 slow-wave sleep, around midnight. Integrated measures (IGF-1) or overnight serial sampling are far more meaningful. Random GH is only useful if very HIGH (suggests acromegaly). Tests LO 3 pulsatility principle directly.
Question 3 of 5 — LO 3 · Lifespan Trajectory
A 72-year-old man complains of fatigue, reduced muscle mass, and central weight gain despite moderate exercise and normal caloric intake. Labs: IGF-1 at the lower end of the adult reference range, morning TSH and cortisol normal, testosterone in the normal range. Fasting glucose 104. MRI pituitary is normal. He read online about "GH replacement for anti-aging" and requests a prescription. Which of the following best describes the appropriate clinical assessment and response?
AInitiate recombinant GH at a starting dose of 0.3 mg daily
BOrder a provocative GH stimulation test and initiate therapy only if the response is blunted
CDecline GH therapy: physiologic decline with aging (somatopause) is NOT the same as GH deficiency, and the risks (insulin resistance, arthralgias, edema, cardiomegaly, possible cancer) outweigh marginal body-composition benefits
DStart mecasermin (IGF-1)
EStart pegvisomant
C.Somatopause (age-related decline in GH/IGF-1) is a normal physiologic phenomenon and is NOT equivalent to documented hypopituitary GH deficiency. Randomized trials of GH in older adults show modest gains in lean mass and loss of fat mass, but significant rates of insulin resistance, edema, arthralgias, carpal tunnel, cardiomegaly, and theoretical cancer risk. GH is NOT FDA-approved for anti-aging. Pragmatic LO 3 application.
Question 4 of 5 — LO 4 · Feedback Loops
A research team studies a transgenic mouse engineered with constitutive hepatic IGF-1 over-expression (4× normal serum IGF-1). Over weeks, they observe: decreased pituitary GH content, decreased serum GH (both trough and peak), blunted GH pulses in response to GHRH stimulation, and hypothalamic changes with increased somatostatin output and decreased GHRH mRNA. Which feedback mechanism best explains these findings?
AUltra-short-loop feedback only
BLong-loop negative feedback: IGF-1 suppresses both GHRH and GH release and stimulates somatostatin
CPositive feedback of IGF-1 on itself
DHeterophile antibody-induced assay interference
EGain-of-function GH receptor on the pituitary
B. Long-loop feedback in the GH axis has two arms: IGF-1 directly INHIBITS GHRH (at hypothalamic GHRH neurons) AND stimulates SOMATOSTATIN neurons (periventricular nucleus), and also acts directly at the pituitary to reduce GH release. The net effect is suppression at every level — producing the observed pattern. Short loop (GH itself → ↓GHRH) and ultra-short loop (GHRH auto-inhibition) contribute to pulsatility but don't drive sustained chronic suppression. Direct LO 4 / 5 conceptual test.
Question 5 of 5 — LO 4 · Cushing-Related Growth Failure
A 10-year-old girl has gained 12 kg in the past year and developed central obesity, striae, buffalo hump, moon facies, easy bruising, and hypertension. Her growth velocity has DECREASED from ~6 cm/yr to <2 cm/yr (she has fallen across height percentiles). Bone age is DELAYED. 24-hour urine free cortisol is 6× normal. Low-dose dexamethasone fails to suppress cortisol. What is the most likely explanation for her growth failure despite her age and obesity?
APrimary GH deficiency coincident with Cushing syndrome
BChronic hypercortisolemia directly suppresses GH release and inhibits chondrocyte proliferation at growth plates
CInsulin resistance from obesity blunts IGF-1 signaling
DPrecocious puberty has already closed her epiphyses
ELaron syndrome with superimposed Cushing
B. Growth failure is a classic pediatric feature of Cushing syndrome — a counterintuitive finding given her weight gain. Mechanisms: • Chronic high cortisol SUPPRESSES GH release (↑ somatostatin, ↓ GHRH) • Cortisol directly INHIBITS chondrocyte activity at growth plates • Cortisol antagonizes the anabolic effects of IGF-1 on bone and muscle Obesity in pediatric Cushing comes with DELAYED growth — the opposite of typical simple obesity (where growth often accelerates). Treatment of the underlying Cushing → catch-up growth is possible if growth plates are still open. Reinforces LO 4 inhibitors.
Block 3 — GH-Axis Disorders & Treatments
5 questions · LO 5
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07:30
Block Timer
Instructions: Apply GH-axis pathophysiology to classic and integrated clinical scenarios.
Question 1 of 5 — Gigantism in MEN 1
A 16-year-old boy is referred for evaluation of excessive height (2.12 m / 6'11" at 16 years). His father and paternal uncle had "pituitary tumors" and kidney stones. Exam: coarse facial features, enlarged jaw and hands, tall stature, proportional. Labs: IGF-1 6× ULN, GH fails to suppress on OGTT, Ca²⁺ 11.4 mg/dL (high), PTH 95 pg/mL. MRI sella reveals a 1.8-cm pituitary adenoma. Neck US reveals hyperplastic parathyroid glands. Which of the following best unites his findings?
C — MEN 1. Classic "3 P's": Parathyroid hyperplasia (hypercalcemia, inappropriately high PTH), Pituitary adenoma (here GH-secreting → gigantism given pre-epiphyseal closure), Pancreatic endocrine tumors (would manifest as ZES ulcers, insulinoma, etc). Autosomal dominant MEN1 gene (tumor suppressor). Family history strengthens this. MEN 2 (D) involves medullary thyroid + pheo, NOT acromegaly. McCune-Albright (B) is mosaic, not inherited, and has café-au-lait + fibrous dysplasia.
Question 2 of 5 — Acromegaly Management
A 47-year-old man with newly diagnosed acromegaly (IGF-1 5× ULN, non-suppressible GH on OGTT, MRI shows 1.5-cm pituitary macroadenoma with slight suprasellar extension) undergoes transsphenoidal resection. Three months postoperatively, IGF-1 has fallen but remains 2× ULN. He has no visual symptoms. Residual tumor is visible on MRI in the cavernous sinus. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step?
AImmediate repeat surgery
BLong-acting somatostatin analog (octreotide LAR or lanreotide)
CPegvisomant monotherapy
DRadiation therapy without medical therapy
ERecombinant human GH
B. Standard algorithm: transsphenoidal surgery first (done). With residual disease and elevated IGF-1, somatostatin analog (octreotide LAR or lanreotide) is first-line medical therapy — can both control IGF-1 AND shrink tumor (~30–50% shrinkage). Cavernous-sinus invasion often precludes complete surgery. Pegvisomant (C) is next option if SST analogs fail or are not tolerated — it blocks peripheral GH action but doesn't shrink tumor. Radiation (D) is reserved for refractory cases; slow action (years) + high rate of hypopituitarism. GH (E) would worsen disease.
Question 3 of 5 — Laron Syndrome Features
A 7-year-old boy of Yemeni Jewish ancestry (consanguineous parents) presents with severe short stature (<3 SD), proportionate body habitus, frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia, truncal obesity, and episodic fasting hypoglycemia. Arginine stimulation produces a normal GH response (peak 18 ng/mL). Serum IGF-1 is 28 ng/mL (severely low). Exogenous GH administration (1 week) fails to increase IGF-1. Which of the following treatments is most appropriate?
AContinue higher doses of recombinant GH
BRecombinant IGF-1 (mecasermin)
CThyroxine replacement
DPegvisomant
ETestosterone and estrogen priming
B — Mecasermin. This is Laron syndrome: HIGH GH + LOW IGF-1 + failure of IGF-1 to rise with exogenous GH. The defect is in the GH RECEPTOR (GHR) → liver cannot make IGF-1 regardless of how much GH is given. Treatment is the missing downstream mediator: recombinant IGF-1 (mecasermin). Interesting aside: observational studies of Laron patients (classically in Ecuador and Israel) show striking protection from cancer and T2DM — linking IGF-1 signaling to both. Directly tests LO 5 treatment logic.
Question 4 of 5 — Short Stature Differential
A 4-year-old girl presents for short stature evaluation. Height is at the 1st percentile; her parents' average is at the 50th. She has a short neck with webbing, widely spaced nipples, cubitus valgus, and a systolic murmur in the 4th intercostal space. Echocardiogram reveals bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation of the aorta. GH provocation testing is normal, IGF-1 is in the low-normal range for age. Karyotype shows 45,X. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
ANo growth treatment needed — short stature is expected and should be accepted
BRecombinant GH therapy in childhood, with estrogen replacement at pubertal age
CMecasermin (IGF-1)
DPegvisomant
EVosoritide
B. Turner syndrome (45,X): short stature + webbed neck + cardiac defects (bicuspid AV, coarctation) + gonadal failure. GH axis is intact but SHOX gene haploinsufficiency + absent estrogen-driven pubertal growth spurt explain short stature. Recombinant GH therapy starting in early childhood adds 5–8 cm to final height. Estrogen replacement is needed at pubertal age for secondary sexual development and bone health. Mecasermin (C) is for Laron. Vosoritide (E) is for achondroplasia. Tests LO 5 with the broader short-stature DDx.
Question 5 of 5 — Acromegaly Complication Screening
A 55-year-old woman has had well-controlled acromegaly for 5 years (normalized IGF-1 after surgery and octreotide LAR). She has no GI symptoms but has not had any cancer screening in years. She asks which of the following screenings is most specifically indicated by her history of acromegaly. Which test is most appropriate to recommend?
AAnnual chest X-ray to screen for lung cancer
BColonoscopy every 3–5 years to screen for colonic polyps and colorectal cancer
CPSA annually
DAnnual 24-hour urine VMA
EAnnual pituitary MRI indefinitely
B — Colonoscopy. Acromegaly is associated with a 2–3× increased risk of COLORECTAL POLYPS and colon cancer. Guidelines recommend colonoscopy at diagnosis and every 3–5 years thereafter. IGF-1 is a classic mitogen for colonic epithelium. Other monitoring in acromegaly: echocardiogram (cardiomyopathy is the #1 cause of death), OSA screening, diabetes screening (HbA1c), thyroid and adrenal axis checks (for compression effects), and periodic MRI to monitor residual adenoma. Integrates LO 5 with clinical practice.
Source review. Every item below was pulled from your 3rd Party Biochem + Physio folders and hand-mapped to END03 Hypothalamic-Pituitary Relationships Part 2 (GH axis) LOs — signaling pathway (hypothalamus → pituitary → liver → tissues), physiologic effects of GH + IGF-1, regulation of secretion, physiologic stimulators/inhibitors, and altered-signaling syndromes. Grouped by LO to complement — not duplicate — the in-house exam Blocks 1-3 above.
Legend:BRS BiochemBRS PhysioWaite & Sheakley
Group A · GH Signaling Pathway & Physiologic Effects (LOs 1, 2)
BIs stimulated by a specific hypothalamic neurohormone (GHRH)
CIs inhibited by somatostatin
DResults in synthesis of insulin-like growth factor in a variety of target tissues
EAll of the above
E — All of the above. This is the one-stem composite of LOs 1/3/4. GH is released from anterior pituitary somatotrophs in pulses mainly during deep (stage N3) sleep plus a basal level — this is the "dynamic circadian" property in LO 3. It is stimulated by hypothalamic GHRH and inhibited by somatostatin (SST) — the two antagonistic tonic inputs in LO 4. Peripherally, GH drives IGF-1 synthesis primarily in liver but also in bone, muscle, kidney — completing the "hypothalamus → pituitary → liver → target tissues" circuit in LO 1.
A hypothalamic-pituitary hormone is described as follows: "Stimulates the production of insulin-like growth factor (IGF)." Which of the following hormones matches this description?
ALuteinizing hormone (LH)
BProlactin (PRL)
CThyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)
DGrowth hormone (GH)
EFollicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
D — Growth hormone. GH released from pituitary somatotrophs binds the GH receptor (JAK2-STAT5 cytokine-family) on hepatocytes and other tissues → induces IGF-1 (somatomedin C) synthesis. IGF-1 is the primary mediator of GH's anabolic growth effects on cartilage (long bones), muscle, and many visceral organs. Direct GH effects (anti-insulin / metabolic) are distinct from the IGF-1-mediated growth effects — a key LO 2 distinction. None of the other pituitary hormones in this list drive IGF-1.
As part of an anti-doping educational session for athletes, the normal functions of various hormones are introduced. Which of the following hormones is best described as follows: "Increases lipolysis, stimulates protein synthesis, decreases glucose uptake, and supports calcium retention"?
ACortisol
BGlucagon
CGrowth hormone
DInsulin
EParathyroid hormone
C — Growth hormone. LO 2 fully mapped out: GH is anabolic for protein synthesis (positive N₂ balance, muscle growth via IGF-1) but simultaneously diabetogenic — it decreases peripheral glucose uptake and stimulates hepatic gluconeogenesis/glycogenolysis to maintain serum glucose during fasting/stress. It stimulates lipolysis in adipose (shifts fuel source to fatty acids) and supports Ca²⁺ retention and bone mineralization (important for longitudinal bone growth). Cortisol (A) also increases lipolysis and decreases glucose uptake but DECREASES protein synthesis (catabolic). PTH (E) handles Ca²⁺ homeostasis but not the metabolic effects listed.
A 52-year-old man with alcoholism, liver cirrhosis, and chronic fatigue presents with acute back pain and is diagnosed with a vertebral fracture. He also reports tingling and numbness of his skin. Ascites and a mild Trousseau sign are present. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol, growth hormone, thyroid hormone, and thyroid-stimulating hormone are all normal. Insulin-like growth factor 1 and reverse triiodothyronine (rT3) are reduced. Given these GH-axis findings, which statement best explains the reduced IGF-1 despite normal GH?
APituitary somatotrophs are functionally exhausted
BHypothalamic somatostatin is secreted in excess
CHepatic disease reduces the liver's capacity to respond to GH and make IGF-1
DSkeletal muscle absorbs all circulating IGF-1
EIGFBP-3 is upregulated and sequesters all IGF-1
C. LO 1 end-organ step: GH acts on hepatocytes → IGF-1 synthesis. In liver failure, hepatocellular dysfunction means GH cannot drive normal IGF-1 production (and cannot deiodinate T4 to rT3 — explaining the concurrent low rT3). GH itself stays normal because its feedback is largely driven by IGF-1, which is lost. The same cirrhotic liver also fails to 25-hydroxylate vitamin D → hypocalcemia (positive Trousseau, paresthesias) and weak bones (vertebral fracture). This elegantly illustrates that a normal pituitary signal can still produce clinical GH deficiency IF the liver target tissue is broken — a frequent Step 1 pitfall.
Group B · Regulation, Stimulators & Inhibitors (LOs 3, 4)
A male soldier experienced severe head trauma that resulted in permanent interruption of his hypothalamohypophyseal portal vessels. Which of the following would be expected to develop?
AAcromegaly
BExcessive aggressiveness (↑ testosterone)
CHyperpigmentation
DHyperprolactinemia
EHyperthyroidism
D — Hyperprolactinemia, not acromegaly. This is the "stalk effect" — KEY LO 4 teaching for GH. GHRH TONICALLY STIMULATES somatotrophs; losing GHRH means GH secretion FALLS, so acromegaly is impossible after portal disruption. Only prolactin goes UP because PRL is the sole anterior pituitary hormone under tonic inhibition (by hypothalamic dopamine). Contrast with Ext Q7 below: tumors of the hypothalamus that OVERPRODUCE GHRH DO cause acromegaly. Choice A is the tempting wrong answer — it confuses disrupting a stimulatory pathway (↓ GH) with oversupplying it (↑ GH).
A 56-year-old patient presents with a large, protruding jaw, large hands and feet, normal height, and an elevated blood glucose level. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
AHyperprolactinemia due to a pituitary tumor
BAcromegaly due to a GH-producing tumor that developed in adulthood
CCushing syndrome due to an adrenal tumor
DElevated aldosterone and renin resulting from renal artery plaque
EPrimary hyperparathyroidism
B — Acromegaly. Adult excess GH causes acral enlargement without added height because epiphyses are already closed (the same GH excess BEFORE closure = gigantism). The jaw, hands, feet, and soft tissues thicken. Diabetes mellitus frequently coexists because GH stimulates gluconeogenesis and opposes insulin at the tissue level — LO 2 physiology driving the LO 5 clinical picture. Other diagnostic features not listed: carpal tunnel syndrome, deep voice, macroglossia, obstructive sleep apnea, and ~2× cardiovascular mortality.
A 30-year-old female presents with a need to progressively buy larger and wider shoes. She also cannot wear any of her rings anymore because they are too small. A physical exam shows a prominent brow, protruding lower jaw, and spaces between all of her teeth. This woman may have a tumor in which one of the following organs/tissues?
AHypothalamus
BBone marrow
CAdrenal glands
DPancreas
EAdipose tissue
A — Hypothalamus. The patient shows classic acromegaly features (acral/soft-tissue overgrowth, mandibular prognathism with interdental spacing = "spaces between all her teeth"). LO 1 pathway: a hypothalamic tumor producing excess GHRH drives the pituitary to hypersecrete GH → liver IGF-1 ↑ → acral growth. Although most clinical acromegaly is a pituitary somatotroph adenoma, the Step 1 teaching is that hypothalamic GHRH-omas and ectopic GHRH (e.g., pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors, small-cell lung) are also important causes. Pearl: serum GHRH ↑ in ectopic causes but would be ↓ in a pituitary somatotroph adenoma (where feedback from IGF-1 suppresses hypothalamic GHRH).
Ext Q8 — LO 3/5 · Failed GH Suppression on OGTT — Waite & Sheakley Q13
A 50-year-old man has not seen a doctor for 8 years. His feet and hands have grown larger, his jaw is protruding, and his face is looking strangely "out of shape." He has slight difficulty breathing, frequent headaches, fatigue, impotence, and excessive sweating. MRI reveals a 1.5-cm mass on the anterior pituitary. An oral glucose tolerance test is given. Which of the following is a positive test result that supports the diagnosis of acromegaly?
AIncreased serum ghrelin
BFailed growth hormone suppression
CFailed insulin-like growth factor 1 increase
DIncreased serum glucose
EIncreased somatostatin
B — Failed GH suppression. This is THE gold-standard screening test for acromegaly — tests LOs 3 & 5 together. Normally, a glucose load causes hyperglycemia → ↑ somatostatin → GH suppression below 1 ng/mL within 2 hours (part of LO 3 regulation). A somatotroph adenoma secretes GH autonomously — it fails to suppress. Elevated IGF-1 is the best confirmatory test, but in the OGTT the DIAGNOSTIC finding is that GH does NOT fall (C is the wrong direction — IGF-1 should already be HIGH at baseline, not rise in response to glucose). Ghrelin (A) and somatostatin (E) decline physiologically after glucose and cannot be used diagnostically.
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