Lecture 1: Introduction to Hormones
HoyaDocs — Endocrine Block | USMLE Step 1 Preparation
Lecture 1 — Overview
Introduction to Hormones · HoyaDocs Endocrine Block
Official Learning Objectives
At the end of the lecture students should be able to… Click any objective to see the practice questions that test it.
Practice Questions
25 USMLE-style MCQs covering the 7 official end01 learning objectives. Click “Reveal Answer” to see the explanation.
LO 1 — Endocrine vs. Other Intercellular Signaling
Question 1
A 45-year-old man has a glucagonoma producing high systemic glucagon that reaches distant hepatocytes via the bloodstream. Within the pancreatic islets themselves, delta cells simultaneously release somatostatin that inhibits adjacent alpha and beta cells without reaching meaningful systemic concentrations. Which terms correctly describe the glucagon and somatostatin signals, respectively?
A) Paracrine; endocrine
B) Endocrine; paracrine
C) Endocrine; autocrine
D) Neuroendocrine; paracrine
E) Autocrine; endocrine
The mode of intercellular signaling is defined by how the molecule is delivered, not by the molecule itself. Glucagon enters the bloodstream and acts on distant hepatocytes → endocrine. Islet-cell somatostatin diffuses through interstitial fluid to neighboring alpha and beta cells without relying on systemic circulation → paracrine. The same molecule (e.g., somatostatin) can be endocrine when released by the hypothalamus, paracrine in the islet, and neurocrine in brain synapses — the context determines the term.
Question 2
An antigen-activated T lymphocyte synthesizes IL-2 and simultaneously up-regulates the IL-2 receptor on its own surface. IL-2 binds to the same cell that released it and drives clonal proliferation. This mode of signaling is best classified as:
A) Classic endocrine signaling
B) Paracrine signaling
C) Autocrine signaling
D) Juxtacrine signaling
E) Neurocrine (synaptic) signaling
When a cell expresses receptors for a ligand it is itself secreting, the signaling is autocrine. Activated T cells and many tumor cells (glioblastomas with PDGF loops, some breast cancers with IGF-1 loops) rely on autocrine signaling for proliferation. Paracrine = to neighbors via interstitial fluid; endocrine = to distant cells via blood; juxtacrine = membrane-to-membrane contact; neurocrine = across a synapse. The defining feature of autocrine is co-expression of ligand and receptor on the same cell.
Question 3
A parvocellular neuron in the paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus releases corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) from its axon terminals. The CRH drains into the hypophyseal portal blood and travels a short distance to stimulate ACTH release from corticotrophs in the anterior pituitary. Which single term best describes this mode of signaling?
A) Classical endocrine signaling
B) Paracrine signaling
C) Synaptic (neurocrine) signaling across a chemical synapse
D) Neuroendocrine signaling
E) Autocrine signaling
A neuroendocrine cell is a neuron that releases its product into the bloodstream rather than across a synaptic cleft. Hypothalamic parvocellular neurons releasing CRH, TRH, GnRH, GHRH, and dopamine into the hypophyseal portal system are the archetypal example; magnocellular neurons releasing ADH and oxytocin from the posterior pituitary into systemic circulation are likewise neuroendocrine. The distinguishing features are a neuronal source plus vascular (rather than synaptic) delivery.
LO 2 — Hormone Structure, Solubility, & Storability
Question 4
A researcher isolates a hormone that is synthesized as a large precursor cleaved in the Golgi, stored in secretory granules, and acts within seconds of release. Which additional property would be expected?
A) Receptor located in the cytoplasm
B) Primary effect via gene transcription
C) Second-messenger signaling via cAMP or IP3/DAG
D) Synthesis requires 17α-hydroxylase
E) Cannot be measured in the serum during fasting
The clues — synthesized as a preprohormone, cleaved in the Golgi, stored in granules, and acting in seconds — all point to a peptide hormone. Peptides are water-soluble and cannot cross the plasma membrane, so they signal indirectly via cell-surface receptors and second messengers (cAMP, IP3/DAG, RTK, JAK-STAT). A and B describe steroid/thyroid mechanisms; D is a steroidogenic enzyme; E is incorrect (peptide hormones such as glucagon are readily measured in fasting serum).
Question 5
Thyroid hormone (T3/T4) is synthesized from tyrosine and is classified structurally as an amine. With respect to mechanism of action, however, thyroid hormone behaves most like which class of hormone?
A) Peptide — acts on cell-surface receptors via cAMP
B) Steroid — binds intracellular/nuclear receptors and alters gene transcription
C) Catecholamine — acts on α- and β-adrenergic receptors
D) Amine — binds a GPCR on the cell surface like serotonin
E) Peptide — acts via JAK-STAT signaling
A classic USMLE trap. Thyroid hormones are structurally amines (two iodinated tyrosines coupled together), but iodination renders them highly lipophilic. They cross the plasma membrane, bind nuclear receptors (TRα, TRβ), and regulate transcription — behaving like steroids. Onset is hours to days. Don’t equate amine structure with amine mechanism: catecholamines are also amines but do act via GPCRs, the opposite of thyroid hormone.
Question 6
A patient with an insulinoma undergoes fasting labs. Which set of results is most consistent with endogenous insulin hypersecretion (rather than exogenous insulin injection)?
A) High insulin, low C-peptide, low proinsulin
B) High insulin, high C-peptide, high proinsulin
C) Low insulin, high C-peptide, high glucagon
D) High insulin, high C-peptide, undetectable proinsulin
E) High insulin, low glucose, elevated GLP-1
Insulin is synthesized as proinsulin, which is cleaved 1:1 in secretory granules into mature insulin plus C-peptide. Endogenous hypersecretion (insulinoma) raises insulin, C-peptide, and proinsulin together. Commercial insulin contains no C-peptide and suppresses endogenous β-cells, so exogenous injection produces high insulin with suppressed C-peptide (option A). The peptide-hormone synthesis pathway (preprohormone → prohormone → hormone + byproduct, stored together in vesicles) is the reason C-peptide exists as a distinct endogenous marker.
Question 7
A 22-year-old with type 1 diabetes injects his pre-dinner insulin but is called away and forgets to eat. He becomes diaphoretic and confused. Labs: glucose 38 mg/dL, insulin 85 μIU/mL (high), C-peptide 0.1 ng/mL (suppressed). Which statement best explains the biochemistry behind these findings?
A) Insulinoma — endogenous hypersecretion with high C-peptide
B) Commercial insulin preparations lack C-peptide, so exogenous injection raises serum insulin without contributing to measurable C-peptide
C) Reactive hypoglycemia — elevated post-meal insulin with high C-peptide
D) Sulfonylurea ingestion — stimulates β-cell secretion with high C-peptide
E) Hepatic failure decreases insulin clearance, sparing C-peptide
Endogenously, insulin is stored in β-cell granules as an equimolar mixture with C-peptide (both arise from cleavage of a single proinsulin molecule). Commercial recombinant insulin contains only insulin, so exogenous injection raises serum insulin without raising C-peptide; the high exogenous insulin also feeds back on β-cells, further suppressing endogenous secretion. C-peptide is therefore the key discriminator between endogenous (insulinoma, sulfonylurea) and exogenous hyperinsulinemia.
LO 3 — Catecholamine Biosynthesis
Question 8
A patient with a large pheochromocytoma is pretreated with metyrosine (α-methyl-p-tyrosine) prior to surgery to reduce intraoperative catecholamine release. Metyrosine is a competitive inhibitor of the enzyme that performs which function in catecholamine biosynthesis?
A) Decarboxylation of L-DOPA to dopamine
B) Hydroxylation of tyrosine to L-DOPA (the rate-limiting step)
C) β-hydroxylation of dopamine to norepinephrine
D) N-methylation of norepinephrine to epinephrine
E) Oxidative deamination of epinephrine
Catecholamines are synthesized Tyr → L-DOPA → dopamine → norepinephrine → epinephrine. The rate-limiting step is the first: tyrosine → L-DOPA by tyrosine hydroxylase (requires BH4 and O₂; feedback-inhibited by end products; activated by PKA/CaMKII phosphorylation during sympathetic drive). Metyrosine competitively blocks tyrosine hydroxylase, depleting catecholamine stores by 50–80% and preventing intraoperative hypertensive crisis when α-blockade alone is insufficient.
Question 9
A patient with primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease) has very low plasma epinephrine but relatively preserved plasma norepinephrine. Which enzymatic step in the catecholamine biosynthetic pathway best explains this finding?
A) Tyrosine hydroxylase (Tyr → L-DOPA)
B) DOPA decarboxylase (L-DOPA → dopamine)
C) Dopamine β-hydroxylase (dopamine → norepinephrine)
D) Phenylethanolamine N-methyltransferase (norepinephrine → epinephrine)
E) Monoamine oxidase (catecholamine degradation)
PNMT converts norepinephrine to epinephrine and is induced by very high local cortisol. Only the adrenal medulla is bathed in cortisol via the centripetal intra-adrenal portal blood supply from the overlying cortex, which is why the medulla uniquely makes epinephrine. In Addison disease, low cortisol → no PNMT induction → failed epinephrine synthesis. Norepinephrine is still produced normally by sympathetic post-ganglionic neurons elsewhere, which never need PNMT. This is also why paragangliomas (extra-adrenal chromaffin tumors) release NE rather than epinephrine.
Question 10
Which of the following correctly lists the intermediates of catecholamine biosynthesis in the order they are produced within an adrenal medullary chromaffin cell?
A) Tyrosine → dopamine → L-DOPA → norepinephrine → epinephrine
B) Tyrosine → L-DOPA → dopamine → norepinephrine → epinephrine
C) Tyrosine → L-DOPA → norepinephrine → dopamine → epinephrine
D) Phenylalanine → dopamine → L-DOPA → norepinephrine → epinephrine
E) Tyrosine → norepinephrine → dopamine → L-DOPA → epinephrine
The canonical order is Tyr → L-DOPA → dopamine → norepinephrine → epinephrine. Enzymes/cofactors: tyrosine hydroxylase (rate-limiting; BH4), DOPA decarboxylase (B6/PLP), dopamine β-hydroxylase (vit C, Cu; occurs inside the secretory vesicle), and PNMT (SAM; cortisol-dependent, adrenal medulla only). Phe → Tyr occurs in the liver via phenylalanine hydroxylase but is not part of the catecholamine pathway proper. Mnemonic: ‘Tyrants Don’t Dare Nag Emperors.’
LO 4 — Initial Step of Steroid Biosynthesis
Question 11
The initial committed step of steroid hormone biosynthesis in every steroidogenic tissue — adrenal cortex, gonads, and placenta — converts a common precursor into pregnenolone. Which of the following correctly identifies the precursor, the enzyme, and the subcellular location?
A) Progesterone → pregnenolone by 3β-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase in the smooth ER
B) Cholesterol → pregnenolone by desmolase (P450scc / CYP11A1) in the mitochondrion
C) Cholesterol → pregnenolone by 21-hydroxylase in the cytoplasm
D) Acetyl-CoA → pregnenolone by HMG-CoA reductase in the ER
E) Cholesterol → pregnenolone by aromatase in the peroxisome
Every steroid hormone begins from cholesterol. The first committed (and rate-limiting) enzymatic step is side-chain cleavage by desmolase (CYP11A1 / P450scc) on the inner mitochondrial membrane, yielding pregnenolone (a C21 steroid). All downstream enzymes (3β-HSD, 17α-hydroxylase, 17,20-lyase, 21-hydroxylase, 11β-hydroxylase, aromatase) act on pregnenolone and its derivatives in a tissue-specific pattern to generate mineralocorticoids, glucocorticoids, androgens, and estrogens.
Question 12
A neonate with ambiguous genitalia and salt-wasting is found to have homozygous loss-of-function mutations in the steroidogenic acute regulatory (StAR) protein. Adrenal and gonadal steroid synthesis fails almost completely. Which step does StAR perform, and why is its loss devastating?
A) It cleaves the C17–C20 bond of 17-hydroxy-progesterone; loss blocks androgen synthesis only
B) It converts cholesterol to pregnenolone; loss eliminates the initial enzymatic step
C) It transports cholesterol from the outer to the inner mitochondrial membrane, delivering substrate to desmolase; loss prevents virtually all steroid synthesis
D) It phosphorylates desmolase in response to ACTH; loss prevents enzyme activation
E) It is a serum carrier protein that delivers cortisol to target tissues; loss mimics cortisol deficiency
StAR shuttles cholesterol from the outer to the inner mitochondrial membrane, where desmolase resides. Because desmolase is compartmentally isolated, cholesterol delivery by StAR is the true rate-limiting step of all steroidogenesis — which is why trophic hormones (ACTH, LH, angiotensin II) acutely boost steroid output largely by activating StAR. Loss-of-function mutations cause congenital lipoid adrenal hyperplasia: cholesterol accumulates as cytoplasmic lipid droplets but cannot reach desmolase, so essentially no steroid hormone is made. Patients present with neonatal salt-wasting crisis and 46,XY infants appear phenotypically female because androgens cannot be synthesized.
Question 13
Unlike peptide hormones, steroid hormones are not pre-stored in meaningful quantities within their producing cells — their secretion rate essentially equals their synthesis rate. Which property of steroid hormones best explains this “made on demand” pattern?
A) Steroid hormones are too large to be packaged into secretory vesicles
B) Steroid hormones are lipid-soluble and would diffuse freely across the phospholipid membrane of any storage vesicle, so they cannot be retained
C) Cholesterol is not available inside steroidogenic cells
D) Steroidogenic cells lack a rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) Steroid hormones are too unstable in aqueous cytoplasm
Peptide hormones are stored in secretory granules because they are water-soluble and cannot cross phospholipid membranes. Steroids are lipophilic, so they diffuse through the membrane of any would-be storage vesicle — keeping a reserve inside the cell is physicochemically impossible. Steroidogenic cells therefore hold cholesterol (often esterified in lipid droplets) as the substrate and activate the synthesis cascade on demand when trophic hormones arrive. This is also why abrupt withdrawal of exogenous glucocorticoids is dangerous: there are no pre-formed cortisol reserves to buffer an acute stress.
LO 5 — Carrier Proteins: Activity & Half-Life
Question 14
Cortisol is a steroid hormone. Which of the following best describes the consequence of its lipid solubility compared with peptide hormones?
A) Cortisol is stored in vesicles and released rapidly upon stimulation
B) Cortisol must bind a cell-surface G-protein-coupled receptor to act
C) Cortisol effects begin within seconds because it acts via cAMP
D) Cortisol circulates mostly bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin; only the free fraction is biologically active
E) Cortisol is synthesized from tyrosine in the adrenal medulla
Because steroids are lipophilic and poorly soluble in plasma, ~90% of circulating cortisol is bound to corticosteroid-binding globulin (CBG / transcortin) and a small fraction to albumin. Only the remaining free cortisol can diffuse across cell membranes and activate intracellular glucocorticoid receptors. Carrier binding (1) enables systemic circulation of hydrophobic hormone, (2) creates a reserve pool, and (3) prolongs half-life by shielding the hormone from hepatic metabolism and renal clearance. A–C and E are all incorrect (steroids are not stored, use nuclear receptors, have slow onset, and are cholesterol-derived).
Question 15
A 28-year-old woman at 12 weeks gestation is asymptomatic. TSH is 1.1 mIU/L (normal) and total T4 is 15 μg/dL (high; normal 4.5–12). Which of the following best explains these findings?
A) She has Graves disease with autonomous thyroid hormone production
B) Pregnancy-associated estrogen increases thyroxine-binding globulin, so more T4 is bound; total T4 rises while free T4 and TSH remain normal
C) hCG stimulates TSH receptors, increasing both total and free T4
D) Pregnancy decreases TBG, so less T4 is bound and total T4 rises
E) She has developed a TSH-secreting pituitary adenoma
Estrogen stimulates hepatic synthesis of thyroxine-binding globulin (TBG). With more carrier, a larger bound pool is needed to keep free T4 at the set-point. Transiently, free T4 dips → TSH briefly rises → thyroid produces more T4 → new equilibrium: total T4 is high while free T4 and TSH are normal. The patient is clinically euthyroid. The same pattern is seen with oral contraceptive use. In nephrotic syndrome the opposite occurs (TBG lost in urine, total T4 falls, free T4 remains normal). Only the free fraction is physiologically active.
Question 16
A patient with nephrotic syndrome loses substantial protein in the urine, including thyroxine-binding globulin. Once a new steady state is reached, which thyroid laboratory pattern would you expect?
A) Low total T4, high free T4, low TSH (overt hyperthyroidism)
B) Low total T4, normal free T4, normal TSH (clinically euthyroid)
C) High total T4, normal free T4, normal TSH
D) Low total T4, low free T4, high TSH (overt hypothyroidism)
E) Normal total T4, high free T4, normal TSH
Losing TBG reduces plasma T4 binding capacity. Briefly, free T4 rises → TSH is suppressed → thyroid output decreases → free T4 returns to normal. The new equilibrium has less carrier, so total T4 is low while free T4 and TSH are normal — the patient is euthyroid. This is the mirror image of pregnancy/estrogen-induced high-TBG states. Only free hormone is active; total-hormone assays can be misleading when carrier-protein levels change.
Question 17
A man who abuses anabolic androgens develops gynecomastia. Laboratory testing shows low-normal total testosterone and markedly decreased sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG). Which of the following best explains the gynecomastia?
A) Androgens directly stimulate breast tissue growth
B) Reduced SHBG increases free testosterone, which is aromatized peripherally to estradiol in adipose tissue, stimulating breast tissue
C) Exogenous testosterone suppresses GnRH and decreases estrogen production
D) Elevated SHBG binds estradiol, raising free estradiol levels
E) Androgens block aromatase, decreasing estradiol
Exogenous androgens suppress hepatic SHBG synthesis. With less SHBG, the free testosterone fraction rises disproportionately and is available to aromatase (in adipose, liver, and skin) → conversion to estradiol → stimulation of breast ductal tissue → gynecomastia. Total testosterone may look ‘low-normal’ because the measurement includes the shrunken bound pool. The same principle underlies obesity-associated gynecomastia (more adipose aromatase) — and it illustrates why SHBG changes can have clinical effects even with ‘normal’ total hormone levels. Carrier proteins determine what fraction is biologically available.
LO 6 — Hormone Receptor Classification (Location + Mechanism)
Question 18
A 14-year-old boy with a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma is found to have a somatic activating mutation of Gsα in the somatotrophs (GNAS mutation). Which of the following best describes the consequence?
A) Decreased cAMP, decreased GH secretion
B) Increased cAMP, increased GH secretion leading to gigantism
C) Increased IP3/DAG signaling, increased GH secretion
D) Decreased adenylyl cyclase activity, no change in GH
E) Increased Gi signaling, decreased cAMP, acromegaly
GHRH signals via a Gs-coupled GPCR → activates adenylyl cyclase → ↑cAMP → PKA → GH release. A constitutively active Gsα mutation (McCune-Albright; ~40% of sporadic GH adenomas) locks Gs in the ‘on’ state → continuous cAMP elevation → unregulated GH secretion. Before epiphyseal closure this produces gigantism; after closure, acromegaly. The question tests both receptor location (cell-surface GPCR) and mechanism (Gs→cAMP).
Question 19
Epinephrine stimulates hepatic glycogenolysis via β2 receptors (Gs → cAMP → PKA) and vascular smooth muscle contraction via α1 receptors (Gq → IP3/DAG). A selective Gq blocker would most directly prevent which downstream event?
A) cAMP-dependent PKA activation
B) Release of intracellular calcium from the endoplasmic reticulum
C) Adenylyl cyclase activation
D) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
E) Nuclear receptor translocation
Gq activates phospholipase C, which cleaves PIP2 into IP3 + DAG. IP3 opens IP3 receptors on the ER, releasing Ca²⁺ into the cytosol; DAG and Ca²⁺ activate PKC. Blocking Gq abolishes PLC activation → no IP3 → no ER Ca²⁺ release → α1-mediated vasoconstriction fails. Options A and C describe Gs signaling. PDE inhibition pertains to cyclic-nucleotide degradation; E describes nuclear-receptor (steroid/thyroid) signaling. Classic Gq-coupled hormones: oxytocin, TRH, GnRH, angiotensin II, histamine H1, V1 ADH.
Question 20
Growth hormone and prolactin exert their cellular effects through which receptor family?
A) G-protein-coupled receptor — Gs subtype
B) Receptor tyrosine kinase with intrinsic kinase activity
C) Cytokine receptor associated with JAK kinases → STAT signaling
D) Nuclear receptor — direct gene transcription
E) Ligand-gated ion channel
GH, prolactin, erythropoietin, and most interleukins/interferons use cytokine receptors, which lack intrinsic kinase activity but recruit and activate JAK2. Activated JAKs phosphorylate STAT transcription factors, which dimerize, enter the nucleus, and drive gene expression. This is why JAK inhibitors (ruxolitinib, tofacitinib) affect many hormone/cytokine pathways. In contrast, insulin uses a true RTK — a frequent USMLE distinguisher.
Question 21
A patient is started on a medication that inhibits phosphodiesterase (PDE). Which of the following best describes the most immediate downstream effect?
A) Decreased cAMP accumulation → reduced PKA activity
B) Increased cAMP accumulation → enhanced PKA activity
C) Increased IP3 production → Ca²⁺ release
D) Activation of nuclear receptors → increased transcription
E) Inhibition of adenylyl cyclase → decreased cAMP
Phosphodiesterase degrades cAMP (→ AMP) and cGMP (→ GMP). Inhibiting PDE lets cyclic nucleotides accumulate, amplifying whatever Gs or guanylyl-cyclase signal is active. Clinical examples: sildenafil (PDE5 → ↑cGMP → smooth-muscle vasodilation), milrinone (PDE3 → ↑cAMP → cardiac inotropy), theophylline/caffeine (nonselective PDE → ↑cAMP → bronchodilation). Receptor mechanism (cell-surface GPCR → second messenger) determines where these drugs act downstream.
Question 22
A patient with a GH-secreting pituitary adenoma is started on octreotide, a somatostatin analog. What is the mechanism by which octreotide reduces GH secretion?
A) It blocks GH receptors in peripheral tissues, preventing IGF-1 production
B) It stimulates dopamine D2 receptors on somatotrophs, inhibiting GH release
C) It mimics somatostatin by activating Gi-coupled somatostatin receptors (SSTRs), lowering cAMP and inhibiting GH secretion
D) It blocks GnRH receptors on somatotrophs
E) It activates Gs → ↑cAMP → paradoxical feedback suppression of GH
Octreotide is a long-acting somatostatin analog that binds SSTR2/SSTR5 on pituitary somatotrophs. SSTRs are Gi-coupled: Gαi inhibits adenylyl cyclase → ↓cAMP → ↓PKA → decreased GH secretion (and tumor growth suppression). Other indications: carcinoid syndrome, VIPoma, glucagonoma, variceal bleeding. Cabergoline (D2 agonist, also Gi) is an alternative commonly used for prolactinomas. This tests both receptor location (cell-surface GPCR) and mechanism (Gi → ↓cAMP).
LO 7 — Cellular Sensitivity & Response
Question 23
A researcher compares insulin dose-response curves for glucose uptake in muscle biopsies from a lean control and a patient with long-standing type 2 diabetes. In the diabetic tissue, the maximum glucose uptake at saturating insulin concentrations is markedly reduced compared with the control. Which mechanism best accounts for this pattern?
A) Increased insulin-receptor affinity (decreased Kd)
B) Decreased number of functional insulin receptors and/or impaired post-receptor signaling (reduced Vmax)
C) Increased circulating insulin concentration
D) Up-regulation of GLUT-4 expression
E) Increased SHBG levels
Cellular sensitivity to a hormone can be altered in three main ways: (1) change in receptor number, (2) change in receptor affinity (EC50 shift), and (3) change in downstream signaling capacity. In insulin resistance, receptor number falls and post-receptor tyrosine-kinase signaling is impaired, which collapses the Vmax of glucose uptake rather than shifting the EC50 — so even saturating insulin can no longer drive normal uptake. This is precisely the insulin-resistance dose-response pattern illustrated in the lecture.
Question 24
A patient with untreated primary adrenal insufficiency has a blunted vasoconstrictive response to infused norepinephrine, even at high doses. Replacing physiologic cortisol restores the normal pressor response. Which term best describes the cortisol–norepinephrine interaction in the vasculature?
A) Synergism
B) Antagonism
C) Permissiveness
D) Tonic inhibition
E) Competitive agonism
A permissive effect means one hormone has little or no action on its own but is required for another hormone to exert its full effect. Physiologic cortisol permits catecholamine-mediated vasoconstriction, partly by up-regulating α1-receptor expression. Without cortisol, norepinephrine’s pressor effect is blunted — contributing to the hypotension of Addisonian crisis. Synergism means combined effect exceeds the sum; antagonism is the opposite. This is a classic example of how circulating factors beyond the hormone itself modify cellular sensitivity and response.
Question 25
A cell that normally expresses β1-adrenergic receptors is engineered to express β2-adrenergic receptors instead. When exposed to the same concentration of epinephrine, the engineered cell reaches a half-maximal cAMP response at a lower epinephrine concentration (i.e., its EC50 is left-shifted). Which determinant of cellular sensitivity is most directly responsible for this change?
A) The second messenger was switched from cAMP to cGMP
B) The receptor isoform has a different affinity (Kd) for epinephrine
C) There are more G-proteins in the cell
D) The receptors have been internalized
E) Epinephrine is being degraded faster in the engineered cell
EC50 is determined largely by receptor affinity for the ligand. β2-adrenergic receptors have higher affinity for epinephrine than β1 do, so the same epinephrine concentration produces a half-maximal signal at a lower drug concentration — the dose-response curve shifts left. This is a pure receptor-isoform (affinity) effect. Changing receptor number typically shifts Vmax; changes in second messenger identity, G-protein availability, or hormone clearance involve different mechanisms. As the lecture emphasized, sensitivity depends on receptor isoform, affinity, number, post-translational modification, and downstream machinery.